Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assigned to care for a deaf client. During her lunch hour, she visits the hospital library and reads more about deaf culture in order to better provide appropriate care for her client. This action is an example of:

• A. Cultural knowledge
• B. Cultural noise
• C. Cultural diversity
• D. Cultural divide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cultural knowledge involves seeking information and educating oneself about different cultural groups. In this scenario, the nurse is demonstrating cultural knowledge by learning more about deaf culture to improve the care provided to the deaf client. This proactive approach helps in understanding the client's background, beliefs, and communication preferences, leading to better outcomes. 'Cultural noise' and 'Cultural divide' are incorrect as they do not reflect the nurse's positive action of seeking knowledge to enhance care. 'Cultural diversity' is also incorrect as it does not accurately describe the nurse's specific action of acquiring knowledge about a particular culture.

2. A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?

• A. Palpating the temperature of both feet
• B. Evaluating pulses bilaterally
• C. Turning the client to a side-lying position
• D. Relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.

3. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

• A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
• B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
• C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
• D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

4. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Delirium
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Hypotension
• D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

5. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

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