a client in a long term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days which intervention should the nurse impleme
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

2. After being medicated for anxiety, the client says to the nurse, 'I guess you are too busy to stay with me.' Which response by the nurse is correct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should respond with empathy and reassurance to address the client's emotional needs. The correct response, 'I have to go now, but I will come back in 10 minutes,' acknowledges the client's feelings while providing a timeframe for the nurse's return, showing care and concern. Choice A, 'I'm so sorry, but I need to see other clients,' prioritizes other tasks over the client's emotional needs, which can increase anxiety. Choice C, 'You'll be able to rest after the medicine starts working,' offers false reassurance and does not address the client's immediate emotional distress. Choice D, 'You'll feel better after I've made you more comfortable,' does not acknowledge the client's concerns and fails to establish a supportive connection with the client.

3. A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.

4. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.

5. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.

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