Nursing Elites

1. A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the caregiver to offer a glass of warm prune juice at mealtimes.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for a large-volume enema.
• C. Assess the client's medical record to determine the client's normal bowel pattern.
• D. Instruct the caregiver to increase the client's fluids to five 8-ounce glasses per day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.

2. A client undergoing presurgical testing before a total abdominal hysterectomy says to the nurse, 'After I have this surgery I know my husband will never come near me again.' Which response would the nurse give?

• A. You're underestimating how your husband will respond to your surgery.
• B. You're concerned about the effect on your sexual relations.
• C. You're worried that the surgery will change how others see you.
• D. You're concerned about how your husband will respond to your surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's expressed concern about her husband's reaction to the surgery, encouraging further discussion without imposing the nurse's assumptions. Choice A reframes the client's concern to focus on the husband's response, aligning more closely with the client's stated worry. Choice B makes an assumption about the client's concerns regarding sexual relations, which may not be the primary focus of her statement. Choice C shifts the attention to how others perceive the client, deviating from the client's specific reference to her husband's reaction, thus not addressing the client's main concern.

3. A client with untreatable metastasized cancer tells the nurse, 'I think they made a mistake. I don't think I have cancer. I feel too good to be dying.' Which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is experiencing the stage of denial. This is evident as the client is having difficulty accepting the reality of their diagnosis and denies the presence of cancer despite the evidence. During the anger stage, the individual expresses anger about their situation, questioning why it is happening to them. Bargaining involves attempting to negotiate for more time or a different outcome, acknowledging the reality of death but trying to delay it. Acceptance, on the other hand, is characterized by coming to terms with the inevitability of death and preparing for it peacefully. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's disbelief and refusal to accept the diagnosis align with the denial stage of grief.

4. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose � Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg � 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

5. A 28-month-old toddler is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected meningitis. A few hours later the mother tells the nurse, 'I have to leave now, but whenever I try to go, my child gets upset, and then I start to cry.' Which is the best action by the nurse?

• A. Walking the mother to the elevator
• B. Encouraging the mother to spend the night
• C. Staying with the child while the mother leaves
• D. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best action for the nurse in this situation is to stay with the child while the mother leaves. By doing so, the nurse can provide comfort and reassurance to both the child and the mother. This approach acknowledges the mother's need to leave while ensuring the child is not left alone and is supported during the separation. Walking the mother to the elevator does not address the child's emotional needs and may not provide adequate support. Encouraging the mother to spend the night is not necessary and may not be feasible for her. Telling the mother to wait until the child falls asleep is not recommended as it may create a sense of dishonesty and uncertainty for the child, who should be aware of the mother's departure and reassured that she will return.

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