Free Safe and Effective Care Environment practice for Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions (NCLEX RN). Answer 72 nursing exam-style questions
A patient with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What potential problem associated with dysphagia has the greatest influence on the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a person experiences dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), the greatest concern is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when food or fluids enter the trachea and lungs instead of going down the esophagus. This can lead to serious complications such as choking, airway obstruction, and aspiration pneumonia. Anorexia (Choice A) refers to a loss of appetite, which is not the primary concern with dysphagia. Self-care deficit (Choice C) and inadequate intake (Choice D) are important considerations but do not have as direct an impact on the immediate safety and health risks associated with aspiration in dysphagia.
You are working the 4 pm to 12 midnight evening shift. You are taking care of a group of patients. The supervising RN identifies 5 patients who get a medication at 'HS'. When will you give this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to give the medication at the patient's bedtime. 'HS' is a medical abbreviation that stands for 'hora somni,' which translates to 'at bedtime' or 'at the hours of sleep.' This timing ensures that the medication is administered appropriately to align with the patient's sleep schedule and maximize its effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because giving the medication after dinner, whenever requested, or before the end of the shift may not coincide with the intended purpose of the medication, potentially affecting its efficacy and patient outcomes.
A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.
Which term best describes changes such as retirement, grandparenting, and increased dependence on others?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Psychosocial.' Retirement, grandparenting, and increased dependence on others are examples of psychosocial changes because they involve social interactions, relationships, and psychological aspects. 'Moral' (Choice A) does not directly relate to the changes mentioned. 'Self-esteem' (Choice C) is more about self-perception and confidence, not the social changes mentioned. 'Psychomotor' (Choice D) refers to physical movements and skills, which are not the focus of the changes described in the question.
When a patient refuses to believe a terminal diagnosis, they are exhibiting:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Denial is a defense mechanism where a patient rejects a reality that is too painful or difficult to accept. In the context of a terminal diagnosis, the patient may refuse to believe it in order to avoid facing the harsh truth. Regression (choice A) involves reverting to earlier, more childlike behaviors and is not applicable in this scenario. Mourning (choice B) is the process of grieving a loss, which typically occurs after acceptance of the diagnosis. Rationalization (choice D) is creating logical explanations to justify unacceptable behaviors, which is not the case when a patient denies a terminal diagnosis.
The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.
A nurse is preparing to irrigate a client's indwelling catheter through a closed, intermittent system. Which of the following steps must the nurse take as part of this process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When performing closed intermittent system catheter irrigation, the nurse should use sterile solution at room temperature with sterile technique. It is important to position the client comfortably for easy access to the catheter site and to assess the abdomen during the procedure. Clamping the catheter should be done below the level of the injection port, not above. The correct step is to inject sterile solution through the injection port into the catheter, allowing the fluid to travel up the catheter to irrigate the tubing and the bladder.
Which of the following descriptions best describes the function of the thyroid gland?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The thyroid gland is responsible for secreting thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which work to regulate the metabolism of the body's cells. The primary function of the thyroid gland is to control the body's metabolic rate, affecting processes such as heart rate, temperature regulation, and energy levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thyroid gland is not involved in converting glucose into glycogen, secreting cortisol, or affecting skin pigmentation. Instead, the primary role of the thyroid gland is to regulate the metabolism and energy balance in the body.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube. Before administering the feeding, the healthcare professional aspirates some stomach contents and checks the pH. The result is 3.9. What is the next action of the healthcare professional?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the pH of the aspirated stomach contents is 4 or less, it indicates that the gastrostomy tube is in the stomach, confirming correct placement. A pH of 3.9 falls within this range, so the healthcare professional can proceed with administering the enteral feeding. There is no need to adjust the tube placement, flush with water, or contact the physician in this situation as the tube is appropriately positioned for feeding.
What is the flap of tissue that covers the trachea upon swallowing called?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Epiglottis. The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that covers the trachea when swallowing to prevent food or liquid from entering the airway. Choice A, Epidermis, is the outer layer of the skin and is not related to the trachea. Choice B, Endocardium, is the inner lining of the heart chambers and is also unrelated to the trachea. Choice D, Epistaxis, refers to a nosebleed and is not the correct term for the tissue covering the trachea.
A triage nurse has four clients arrive in the emergency department within 15 minutes. Which client should the triage nurse send back to be seen first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the teenager who suffered singed facial hair while camping. This client is in the greatest danger with a potential risk of respiratory distress. Singed facial hair indicates exposure to heat or fire in close range, which could have caused serious damage to the interior of the lungs. It's crucial to prioritize this client as the interior lining of the lungs has no nerve fibers, so swelling may not be immediately noticeable. The other choices, while concerning, do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. The infant's condition may be serious but does not pose an immediate danger of respiratory distress. The elderly client's symptoms could indicate gastrointestinal issues, which are important but not as urgent as potential respiratory compromise. The middle-aged client's pain behind the right scapula, while uncomfortable, does not indicate an acute life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention.
Penny Thornton has had a stroke, or CVA, and is having difficulty eating on her own. Soon, she will be getting some assistive devices for eating meals. Which healthcare worker will be providing Penny with these assistive devices?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An occupational therapist is the healthcare professional responsible for assessing the needs of individuals, like Penny, regarding assistive devices that aid them in their daily activities. In this case, assistive devices for eating, such as weighted plates and specialized utensils, are crucial for helping Penny regain independence in feeding herself. Physical therapists focus more on mobility and movement, speech therapists on communication and swallowing disorders, and social workers on providing emotional and social support. Therefore, the correct choice is the occupational therapist as they specialize in activities of daily living and promoting independence.
A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank for 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In situations where a child has ingested a potentially harmful substance, contacting the Poison Control Center quickly is crucial. The Poison Control Center can provide specific guidance tailored to the child's situation, which can include whether immediate medical attention is necessary or if any actions need to be taken at home. Option A, 'This too shall pass,' is not appropriate as it dismisses the seriousness of the situation. Option B, 'Take the child immediately to the ER,' may not always be the best course of action without guidance from experts. Option D, 'Give the child syrup of ipecac,' is outdated advice and not recommended as a first response to poisoning incidents.
A child is admitted to the hospital several days after stepping on a sharp object that punctured her athletic shoe and entered the flesh of her foot. The physician is concerned about osteomyelitis and has ordered parenteral antibiotics. Which of the following actions is done immediately before the antibiotic is started?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before starting antibiotics, a blood culture should be drawn to identify the causative organism. This step is crucial as antibiotics may interfere with the identification process. Drawing a complete blood count with differential or writing admission orders are important steps in patient care but are not as critical as obtaining a blood culture to guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. The arrival of the parents is not directly related to the immediate action required before starting antibiotics in this scenario.
Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Vitamin D. Fat-soluble vitamins are those that can be stored in the body, allowing excess amounts to be stored for later use. While this storage ability can help prevent deficiencies, it also poses a risk of toxicity. The fat-soluble vitamins are A, E, D, and K. Choice A, Vitamin C, is water-soluble, not fat-soluble. Choice C, Vitamin B-6, and Choice D, Riboflavin, are also water-soluble vitamins and not fat-soluble.
When dismissing a 5-year-old boy from the pediatrics unit, what type of seat belt restraint should the child wear as the parents drive the car to the front door of the hospital?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A 5-year-old child riding in a car should use a restraint system for safety. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that children under 13 years should not ride in the front seat of a car due to safety concerns. For a 5-year-old child, a booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat is the most appropriate choice. This setup ensures proper protection and restraint for the child's size and age. Choice A is incorrect because a 5-point restraint system facing backward is not suitable for a 5-year-old child in a car. Choice C is incorrect as a lap belt alone does not provide adequate protection for a child of this age. Choice D is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat, especially at this young age.
A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tachypnea is defined as a rapid, quick, and shallow respiration rate. When a patient is anxious, they may hyperventilate, leading to tachypnea. Bradypnea (Choice A) is slow breathing, which is not expected in an anxious patient. Orthopnea (Choice B) is difficulty breathing while lying down and is not directly related to anxiety. Dyspnea (Choice D) is shortness of breath, which may not be the primary respiratory pattern seen in an anxious patient undergoing a procedure. Therefore, the correct choice is tachypnea as it aligns with the expected respiratory response to anxiety.
The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.
A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.
An Asian-American woman is experiencing diarrhea, which is believed to be "cold"? or "yin."? What should the nurse recognize that the woman may likely try to treat it?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the Asian-American woman is believed to be experiencing diarrhea due to a "cold"? or "yin"? imbalance. According to the yin/yang theory, yang represents heat and yin represents cold. Therefore, to balance the cold nature of the diarrhea, the woman may try to treat it by consuming foods that are considered "hot"? or "yang"?. This aligns with the concept that cold foods are eaten with a hot illness, and hot foods are eaten with a cold illness. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the yin/yang theory and are not relevant to addressing the imbalance associated with the cold nature of the diarrhea.
Specific gravity in urinalysis:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.
The patient with migraine headaches has a seizure. After the seizure, which action can you delegate to the nursing assistant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a patient with migraine headaches has a seizure, it is important to assess their vital signs to monitor their condition. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it falls within their scope of practice. Documenting the seizure and performing neurologic checks require a higher level of training and should be done by a nurse or healthcare provider. Restraint should never be used as a first-line intervention after a seizure unless there is an immediate threat to the patient's safety, and it should be done following proper protocols and with appropriate training.
A client on the nursing unit is terminally ill but remains alert and oriented. Three days after admission, the nurse observes signs of depression. The client states, 'I'm tired of being sick. I wish I could end it all.' What is the most accurate and informative way to record this data in a nursing progress note?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Subjective data includes thoughts, beliefs, feelings, perceptions, and sensations that are apparent only to the person affected and cannot be measured, seen, or felt by the nurse. This information should be documented using the client's exact words in quotes. The other options indicate that the nurse has drawn the conclusion that the client no longer wishes to live. From the data provided, the cues do not support this assumption. A more complete assessment should be conducted to determine if the client is suicidal.
The UAP who has just been accepted to nursing school says to a client, 'You must be so pleased with your progress.' The nurse later explains to the UAP that this is an example of what type of question?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement 'You must be so pleased with your progress' is an example of a leading question. Leading questions guide the respondent towards a particular answer or response, potentially biasing the data collected. In this scenario, the UAP's question implies that the client should be pleased with their progress, steering the client's response. Closed-ended questions typically elicit brief factual responses or a 'yes' or 'no.' Open-ended questions encourage clients to provide detailed responses and share their thoughts and feelings freely. Neutral questions do not lead or influence the client's response, allowing for unbiased information gathering.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of platelets to a client. Which of the following actions must the healthcare professional perform before giving the platelets?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before administering platelets, it is crucial to check the integrity of the container holding the blood product. An intact container ensures the sterility and safety of the platelets, minimizing the risk of contamination or infection. Option A is incorrect as administering platelets typically does not require starting a new IV line unless indicated for the specific patient. Option C is not the priority as verifying the client's identity can be done at any point during the administration process but is not specific to the platelet transfusion itself. Option D, checking the client's chart for antibiotic use, is not directly related to ensuring the safety of the blood product container.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of constipation in a client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to postpone bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs. Clients who delay bowel movements by ignoring the urge to defecate or not evacuating promptly, such as in situations where they are not near a bathroom, are at higher risk of developing constipation. This behavior leads to a decrease in bowel movement frequency, slowed intestinal motility, and increased fecal water absorption, resulting in hard, dry stools that are difficult to pass. Intestinal infection (choice B), antibiotic use (choice C), and food allergies (choice D) are less likely to be direct causes of constipation compared to postponing bowel movements.
A client is being assisted with ambulation in the hallway using a gait belt when they become dizzy and start to faint. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
If a client becomes dizzy and starts to faint while being assisted with ambulation, the nurse's first action should be to assist the client into a sitting position to prevent or reduce the impact of a fall. This can be done by guiding the client to sit in the nearest chair or sliding down along a wall for support. Option A is incorrect because standing behind the client may not prevent a fall and could potentially lead to injury. Option C is incorrect as pulling the client upward may worsen the situation. Option D, calling for help, is not the first action to take when the client is at risk of falling.
The functional health pattern assessment data states: 'Eats three meals a day and is of normal weight for height.' The nurse should draw which of the following conclusions about this data? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The assessment data provided indicates a healthy pattern of nutrition and a normal weight for height, suggesting a positive health status. This aligns with a wellness diagnosis, such as 'Potential for enhanced nutrition,' which focuses on improving health further. An actual health problem refers to a current health issue present in the client, which is not evident in this data. Collaborative health problems involve interprofessional collaboration and are not indicated based on the information provided. While a diet assessment may be needed to evaluate food quality, the initial data suggests a wellness-focused approach to care.
When preparing a patient on complete bed rest to eat, at what degree angle or more should you put the head of the bed up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.
What is the primary route of transmission of MRSA?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Hands of healthcare workers.' MRSA is primarily transmitted via the unwashed hands of healthcare workers who can carry the Staphylococcus aureus bacterium from one patient to another. Shared needles, items in the healthcare environment, and blood transfusions are not the main routes of transmission for MRSA. Shared needles can transmit bloodborne pathogens, items in the healthcare environment can harbor bacteria but are not the primary mode for MRSA, and blood transfusions are not a common route for MRSA transmission.
What is the primary purpose of emergency planning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary purpose of emergency planning is to ensure and maintain the safety of people and the preservation of objects, such as buildings and personal possessions during emergencies or disasters. While compliance with state and federal laws regarding emergency planning is important, the main goal is to prioritize life and safety. Choices A, B, and C focus on legal compliance, which is necessary but secondary to the fundamental objective of safeguarding lives and property in emergency situations.
Mr. Thomas is a well-groomed 68-year-old male patient who had prostate surgery two days ago. He has an indwelling catheter and a urinary drainage bag. You have weighed him at 9 am each morning for 3 mornings in a row. Today, on the 4th day, his morning weight is 3 pounds more than it was the day before. Why could he have gained these 3 pounds in one day, on a 1000 calorie diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the weight gain may be due to the urinary drainage bag not being emptied today, while it was emptied on previous days. This scenario is common and can lead to an increase in weight that is not related to food intake. Choice A is incorrect because assuming visitors are sneaking junk food is speculative and not based on facts. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest the scale is broken. Choice D is incorrect because any unexplained weight gain should be investigated further, even if it seems insignificant at first.
When a nurse's hand comes in contact with a client's blood after providing wound care, what is the next action the nurse should take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a nurse's hand comes in contact with a client's blood, it is important to follow appropriate infection control measures. Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer is not sufficient in this scenario as the blood is a visible contaminant. The best practice is to wash hands with soap and water using appropriate technique to ensure thorough cleansing and removal of any potential pathogens. Notifying the appropriate personnel about the exposure is important for documentation and further evaluation, but immediate hand hygiene is crucial. Sampling the client's blood for disease determination is not within the nurse's scope of practice and is unnecessary in this situation.
One major difference between long term care and respite centers is the fact that long term care facilities:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The major difference between long-term care and respite centers is that long-term care facilities provide both physical and emotional care on an ongoing, long-term basis. This continuous care is essential for residents who require extended assistance. In contrast, respite centers offer temporary services, providing similar care but for a short-term duration. These short-term services are designed to give family caregivers a break from their daily responsibilities. Choice A is incorrect because both long-term care and respite centers can offer both physical and emotional care, but the key distinction lies in the duration of care provided. Choice B is incorrect as respite centers do not typically offer outpatient services, and the focus is on temporary relief rather than long-term care. Choice D is incorrect as the question clearly highlights a major difference between long-term care and respite centers.
The Sims' position is MOST similar to the ________ position.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'lateral.' The Sims' position is characterized by the patient lying on their side with the upper knee flexed and the upper arm positioned in front of the body. This is similar to the lateral position where the patient is also lying on their side. The prone position (choice A) is when the patient lies face down, the supine position (choice C) is when the patient lies face up, and Fowler's position (choice D) is a seated position with the head of the bed elevated at a 45-90 degree angle. Therefore, the lateral position is the most similar to the Sims' position as both involve the patient lying on their side.
A 60-year-old patient has been treated for pneumonia for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seen today in the clinic for an unexplained weight loss of 10 pounds over the last 6 weeks. Which is an appropriate rationale for this patient's weight loss?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Unexplained weight loss in a patient with pneumonia could indicate an underlying short-term illness or a chronic condition like endocrine disease, malignancy, depression, anorexia nervosa, or bulimia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with weight loss; it usually leads to weight gain due to fluid retention. Unhealthy eating habits are less likely to explain significant unexplained weight loss over a short period. Mental health dysfunctions can affect appetite but are not typically primary causes of significant unexplained weight loss.
Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
A 1-month-old infant has a head measurement of 34 cm and a chest circumference of 32 cm. Based on the interpretation of these findings, what action would the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In infants, a normal head measurement is approximately 32 to 38 cm, and it is usually around 2 cm larger than the chest circumference. These measurements vary with age; between 6 months and 2 years, both measurements are approximately the same, and after age 2 years, the chest circumference becomes greater than the head circumference. Given that the 1-month-old infant's head measurement is within the typical range and slightly larger than the chest circumference, the nurse should consider these findings normal. There is no indication to refer the infant for further evaluation or to have the parent return for re-evaluation in 2 weeks, as these measurements fall within the expected parameters for a 1-month-old infant.
What does preload refer to?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preload refers to the volume of blood that enters the right side of the heart. This volume stretches the fibers in the heart before contraction. Preload is an essential factor in determining the force of ventricular contraction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because preload is specifically related to the volume of blood entering the right side of the heart. Choices C and D are incorrect as they refer to afterload, which is the pressure that the heart must overcome to pump blood out of the ventricles into the systemic or pulmonary circulation.
The client is a chronic carrier of infection. To prevent the spread of the infection to other clients or healthcare providers, the nurse emphasizes interventions that do which of the following? (Berman & Snyder, 2012, p. 713)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent the spread of infection from a chronic carrier, the nurse should focus on blocking the portal of exit from the reservoir, which is the carrier person. By preventing the movement of the organism from the reservoir, the infection can be contained. Eliminating the reservoir is not feasible in this case as the carrier is a chronic carrier. Blocking the portal of entry into the host or decreasing the susceptibility of the host would only impact individual prevention and not the spread from the carrier to others.
A nurse is completing an incident report about a medication error that she made when she accidentally administered too much insulin to a diabetic client. All of the following are components of this documentation EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When completing an incident report for a medication error, it is essential to include factual information such as the type of drug involved, the amount administered, and any adverse effects on the client. However, stating the reason for administering the wrong dose should be avoided in documentation. The focus should be on reporting what happened rather than assigning blame or admitting fault. This approach helps in ensuring a thorough and accurate account of the medication error without introducing subjective elements that could complicate the investigation or resolution process. Therefore, the correct answer is 'The reason for administering the wrong dose.' Choices A, B, and D are vital components of incident report documentation, providing crucial details that help in understanding the error and its impact on the client.
What procedure examines a portion of the large intestine with an endoscope?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sigmoidoscopy is the correct answer because it specifically examines the sigmoid colon located in the descending colon using an endoscope inserted through the rectum. This procedure captures video and images of the large intestine's lining, helping in the diagnosis of conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal cancer. Colposcopy, on the other hand, is a procedure for examining the cervix and vagina, not the large intestine. Upper GI involves capturing images of the esophagus and stomach, focusing on the upper gastrointestinal tract, not the large intestine. Cardiac catheterization is a procedure that involves threading a thin instrument through the femoral artery to the heart, used for cardiac interventions and not related to examining the large intestine.
Which action is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Labeling specimens obtained during a percutaneous lung biopsy is a task that can be appropriately delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it does not require nursing judgment. UAP can perform this task safely under the supervision of a nurse. Listening to a patient's lung sounds for wheezes or rhonchi, instructing a patient about how to use home spirometry testing, and measuring induration at the site of a patient's intradermal skin test all require nursing judgment and interpretation of findings. These tasks should be performed by licensed nursing personnel to ensure accurate assessment and appropriate intervention.
Efforts by healthcare facilities to reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) include an awareness of which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Efforts to reduce hospital-acquired infections (HAIs) involve being aware that the Joint Commission considers death or serious injury resulting from HAIs a sentinel event, which must be reported. While more than 20 states require reporting of HAI rates to the CDC, it is not a nationwide CDC requirement. The gastrointestinal tract is not a specific common site for HAIs; rather, bacteria are the primary cause. Ensuring restraints are properly secured is important for patient safety but not directly related to reducing HAIs.
Which of the following is an anthropometric measurement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Anthropometric measurements relate to the size, weight, and proportions of the human body. Weight is a key anthropometric measurement as it directly reflects body mass, making it the correct choice. Blood pressure, temperature, and pulse rate are physiological measurements that do not specifically pertain to body size or proportion, hence making them incorrect choices in the context of anthropometric measurements.
A client is being instructed on how to use crutches. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When instructing a client on how to use crutches for ambulation, it is important to emphasize keeping the crutch tips dry to prevent slipping while bearing weight on them. Moisture on the crutch tips can lead to accidents. Therefore, the correct answer is to dry the crutch tips with a paper towel if they become wet. Choice A, placing the majority of body weight on the axilla, is incorrect as the weight should be borne through the hands, not the axilla, to avoid nerve damage. Choice C, using the crutches to lift both feet simultaneously when ascending stairs, is incorrect as the client should ascend stairs by placing weight on the unaffected leg first, followed by the crutches and then the affected leg. This method provides stability and safety during stair climbing.
Each small square on the EKG paper is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Each small square on an EKG paper represents 0.04 seconds long and 1mm tall. This standardization is essential for accurate measurements. One large square on EKG paper consists of 5 small squares in length and 5 small squares in height, which equals 0.2 seconds long and 5mm tall (0.5 mV). Choice A is incorrect because while the duration is correct, the height mentioned is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as it provides the correct height but the duration is inaccurate. Choice C is incorrect as the height mentioned is exaggerated, and the duration is correct but the height is not. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.04 seconds long and 1mm tall.
A patient is asked to abduct her arms. Which of the following accurately describes her arm movement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abduction refers to moving a body part away from the midline of the body. In this case, when the patient abducts her arms, she is moving them away from her trunk. Choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B describes adduction, which is the movement of a body part toward the midline. Choice C describes wrist rotation, not arm abduction. Choice D describes crossing the arms over the abdomen, which is not the movement associated with abduction.
The most accurate reading for a temperature is done:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Aural readings are done through the ear canal. The tympanic membrane shares a blood supply with the hypothalamus, the brain area that regulates body temperature. Taking the temperature aurally through a clean canal ensures an accurate reading. Choice A (Orally) is not the most accurate method for temperature measurement as it can be affected by external factors like drinking hot or cold liquids. Choice C (Rectally) is invasive and less practical for routine temperature monitoring. Choice D (Axially) is not a standard method for temperature measurement and may not provide accurate results.
When caring for children with a different cultural perspective, what challenge may the nurse recognize?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for children with different cultural perspectives, nurses should acknowledge that children have spiritual needs that are influenced by their stages of development. This understanding is crucial as children, like adults, have varying spiritual needs based on their age and the religious environment within their family. Recognizing and addressing these spiritual needs is essential for providing holistic care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the influence of children's developmental stages on their spiritual needs and the importance of considering these needs in their care.
When providing endotracheal suctioning, for how long should the nurse suction the endotracheal tube of an intubated client on a ventilator at a time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When providing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse should suction for no longer than ten seconds at a time. Suctioning for longer than ten seconds may cause hypoxia or bronchospasm. Extended suctioning may also place the client at risk of injury to the bronchial and tracheal structures. Choices C and D suggest prolonged suctioning durations that can lead to adverse effects on the client. Choice A, suctioning for five seconds or less, may not be adequate to clear secretions effectively, making choice B the most appropriate duration for safe and efficient suctioning in this scenario.
While auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears a murmur. Which of these instruments would be used to assess this murmur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instrument to assess a murmur while auscultating heart sounds is the bell of the stethoscope. An electrocardiogram is used to measure the heart's electrical activity, not to assess murmurs. Palpation with the nurse's palm of the hand is a method to assess pulses or textures, not heart murmurs. The diaphragm of the stethoscope is typically used for high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds, whereas the bell is more suitable for soft, low-pitched sounds such as murmurs or extra heart sounds.
Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.
An experienced healthcare professional instructs a new colleague on caring for a patient with dyspnea due to a pulmonary fungal infection. Which action by the new colleague indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is placing the patient in droplet precautions and in a private hospital room. Fungal infections are not transmitted from person to person, so isolation procedures like droplet precautions are unnecessary. Listening to the patient's lung sounds, increasing the oxygen flow rate, and monitoring serology results are all appropriate actions in caring for a patient with dyspnea caused by a pulmonary fungal infection.
Which principle of body mechanics may help to reduce the risk of a back injury?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper body mechanics are crucial to prevent injuries, especially for professions involving lifting and moving objects. Keeping the back straight while lifting is essential to reduce the risk of back injuries as it helps maintain the spine's natural alignment and prevents excessive strain on the back muscles. Choosing choices A, B, and D would increase the risk of back injury. Maintaining a wide base of support provides stability, bending from the knees instead of the waist protects the lower back, and pushing or pulling objects reduces the strain on the back muscles, all contributing to preventing back injuries.
You have been asked to record the amount of food that the person has eaten during each meal. What kinds of words or numbers would you use to record this food intake?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Food intake is typically measured in terms of the percentage (%) of food that has been eaten. Using percentages allows for a more precise and standardized way of recording food consumption. For instance, you would record 25% of the vegetable if the person has eaten about a quarter of the vegetables on the plate. Choices A and B are incorrect. Choice A's terms 'a little' and 'a moderate amount' are vague and not specific enough for accurate documentation. Choice B's use of cc is more appropriate for measuring fluids, not solid foods. Choice D is also incorrect as it combines vague terms with percentages, which could lead to confusion in accurately documenting the food intake.
An older adult patient brought to the emergency department by a family member is wandering outside, saying, "I can't find my way home."? The patient is confused and unable to answer questions. What is the nurse's best action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the patient is confused and unable to answer questions. When the patient is unable to provide information, it is important to use secondary sources such as family members. The nurse's best action is to document the patient's mental status and obtain additional assessment data from the family member. This approach will help gather relevant information about the patient's condition. Asking an advanced practice nurse to perform the assessment interview is not necessary as it is within the staff nurse's scope of practice. Calling for a mental health advocate is also unnecessary at this point as the priority is to assess the patient's condition and gather information from the family member.
For the nursing diagnostic statement, Self-care deficit: feeding related to bilateral fractured wrists in casts, what is the major related factor or risk factor identified by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Fractured wrists.' In a nursing diagnostic statement, the related factor or risk factor is the underlying cause of the identified problem. In this case, the major factor affecting the self-care deficit in feeding is the bilateral fractured wrists in casts. The fractured wrists directly impact the client's ability to feed themselves, making it the primary related factor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as discomfort, deficit, and feeding are not the primary cause of the feeding problem in this scenario; rather, it is the physical limitation caused by the fractured wrists that is the focus of the nursing intervention.
The nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child whose growth rate measures below the third percentile for a child his age. He appears significantly younger than his stated age and is chubby with infantile facial features. Which condition does this child likely have?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hypopituitary dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone in childhood and results in a retardation of growth below the third percentile, delayed puberty, and other problems. The child's appearance fits this description. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a genetic disorder resulting in characteristic deformities; Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and other features. Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood which causes overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.
A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.
After taking the vital signs for your patient and finding them to be normal, what should you do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After assessing and finding that the vital signs are normal for the patient, the appropriate action would be to document them on the graphic VS form. This form is used to track and record vital sign measurements accurately and consistently. Reporting the normal vital signs to the doctor is not necessary unless there are concerning trends or deviations. Writing the vital signs on a scrap piece of paper is not recommended as it may not be an official or reliable record. Calling the family members is unrelated to the process of documenting and tracking vital signs for the patient.
The healthcare professional is preparing to measure the length, weight, chest, and head circumference of a 6-month-old infant. Which measurement technique is correct?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For accurate measurements, specific techniques are required for different parameters in infants. Measuring the chest circumference involves encircling the chest at the nipple line. Length should be measured on a horizontal measuring board. Weight should be measured using a platform-type balance scale. Head circumference measurement entails ensuring the tape is aligned at the eyebrows and prominent frontal and occipital bones for the widest span. Therefore, the correct technique for measuring the chest circumference is at the nipple line with a tape measure. The other options are incorrect because length should be measured on a horizontal board, weight should be measured on a balance scale, and head circumference should be measured around the head, not over the nose and cheekbones.
What would be an appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write based on the client's ability to state only two signs of impaired circulation out of three as expected?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate evaluation statement for the nurse to write would be 'Goal not met: Client able to name only two signs of impaired circulation.' In this scenario, the client has only identified two out of the three signs of impaired circulation specified in the desired outcome. Therefore, the goal has not been fully achieved. It is essential in nursing practice to assess and document client progress accurately. While the client has shown some understanding by correctly identifying numbness and tingling as signs of impaired circulation, the inability to state the third sign indicates an incomplete achievement of the goal. This evaluation helps guide further interventions or educational strategies to help the client meet the desired outcome in the care plan.
During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.
During an examination of a patient's abdomen, the nurse notes that the abdomen is rounded and firm to the touch. During percussion, the nurse notes a drum-like quality of the sounds across the quadrants. How would the nurse interpret this type of sound?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A musical or drum-like sound (tympany) is heard when percussion occurs over an air-filled viscus, such as the stomach or intestines. This indicates the presence of air-filled areas. Constipation, choice A, does not produce specific percussion sounds and is related to bowel movements rather than the sound produced during percussion. The presence of a tumor, choice C, would not typically produce a drum-like sound but might result in dullness or decreased resonance. Dense organs, choice D, would produce a dull thud sound rather than a drum-like tympanic sound.
Which brain structure serves as the heat-regulating center?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating body temperature, ensuring it stays within a narrow range. Moreover, the hypothalamus controls various essential bodily functions, such as hunger, thirst, and circadian rhythms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pituitary Gland primarily produces and releases hormones, the Pons is involved in functions like sleep, respiration, and bladder control, and the Medulla Oblongata controls vital functions like breathing and heart rate, but not body temperature regulation.
Patients have a right to ______________.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients have a legal right to access all of their health-related information. This includes details about their health condition, treatment options, test results, and any other relevant data. Providing patients with all their health-related information empowers them to make informed decisions about their care, promotes transparency in the healthcare process, and respects their autonomy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they restrict the information patients should receive based on assumptions or limitations, which goes against the principle of patient autonomy and their right to access their complete health-related information.
Which of the following questions is considered open-ended?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Please describe your symptoms.' This question is considered open-ended because it encourages the respondent to provide a detailed and descriptive answer, fostering a more elaborate response. Open-ended questions are designed to prompt thoughtful and detailed responses. Choice A is a closed-ended question since it seeks a specific time for the medication intake. Choice B is also closed-ended as it can be answered with a simple 'yes' or 'no,' limiting the response. Choice D is closed-ended as it requests a specific day for the follow-up appointment, restricting the range of possible responses.
A client is having difficulties reading an educational pamphlet. He cannot find his glasses. In order to read the words, he must hold the pamphlet at arm's length, which allows him to read the information. Which vision deficit does this client most likely suffer from?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Presbyopia is a condition that occurs when the lens of the eye loses accommodation and is unable to focus light on objects nearby. As a result, clients are unable to see or read items up close but may have success when holding the same item at arm's length. Many clients with presbyopia must wear bifocals, but long-distance vision remains unaffected. Cataracts involve clouding of the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision. Glaucoma is associated with increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, causing vision loss. Astigmatism is a refractive error where the cornea or lens has an irregular shape, leading to distorted or blurred vision.
The nurse informs the physical therapy department that the client is too weak to use a walker and needs to be transported by wheelchair. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse engaged in at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse is responsible for coordinating the plan of care with other disciplines to ensure the client's safety. This action represents the implementation phase of the nursing process. During the implementation phase, the nurse puts the care plan into action, which includes coordinating with other healthcare team members like the physical therapy department. Assessment involves data gathering, planning involves goal setting, and evaluation involves determining the attainment of client goals.
After a symptom is recognized, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. Which of the following statements is true about self-treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a symptom is identified, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. The availability of over-the-counter medications, the relatively high literacy level of Americans, and the influence of the internet and mass media in communicating health-related information to the general population have contributed to the high percentage of cases of self-treatment. Health care providers are recognizing the value of a wide variety of alternative, complementary, and traditional interventions. Many self-treatments, such as over-the-counter medications, are effective. Self-treatment is not always less expensive. Choice A is incorrect as health care providers are recognizing the value of self-treatment. Choice B is incorrect because self-treatment can be effective in many cases. Choice C is incorrect as self-treatment is not always less expensive; it depends on the specific treatment being used.
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a possible nutritional deficiency?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client with poor nutritional intake may have pale mucous membranes surrounding the eye, or the conjunctiva. This area should normally be pink, indicating good circulation and a lack of irritation or dryness. Improper nutrition can manifest as numerous signs in the body, including bowed legs, pale mucous membranes, a smooth or beefy tongue, and poor muscle tone. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen is not a sign of nutritional deficiency but rather of excess fat deposition. The presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue is normal and not indicative of a nutritional deficiency. Straight arms and legs are also typical anatomical features and not specifically related to nutritional deficiencies.
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