Free Psychosocial Integrity practice for Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions (NCLEX RN). Answer 55 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode
A client who has been on hemodialysis for 2 years communicates in an angry, critical manner and does not adhere to the prescribed medications and diet. Which explanation for the client's behavior would be useful to consider in planning care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's angry, critical communication and non-adherence to treatment suggest underlying emotional struggles. The behavior is likely a defense mechanism against feelings of depression and fear. It is essential to consider that the client's actions are not intentionally aimed at punishing others but rather a manifestation of internal distress. Option A is incorrect as the behavior is not about punishing the nursing staff. Option B is incorrect because the behavior is not a constructive way of accepting reality but rather a maladaptive coping mechanism. Option D is incorrect as the behavior is not primarily driven by an effort to maintain life but rather by emotional distress.
On her first visit to the neonatal intensive care unit to see her preterm newborn, the mother's only comment to the nurse is, 'My baby looks so fragile. Do you think my child will make it?' Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's response should aim to convey acceptance and encourage the mother to express her concerns. By saying, "It's understandable that your baby looks fragile to you. What have you learned about the condition?", the nurse acknowledges the mother's feelings and prompts her to share her understanding, fostering further communication and addressing any misconceptions. Choices A and B dismiss the mother's concerns by making general statements and do not encourage dialogue. Choice D implies judgment and may deter the mother from opening up about her fears.
After a mastectomy or a hysterectomy, a client may feel incomplete as a woman. Which statement would alert the nurse to this feeling in a client who has undergone a total hysterectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is "I feel washed out; there isn't much left." This statement suggests a feeling of emptiness or incompleteness after the surgical procedure. Concern about who can assist during recovery, fear of pain, or excitement to go home and see a grandchild are not indicative of feeling incomplete as a woman after a hysterectomy. These other statements focus on practical concerns, physical discomfort, and positive emotions, respectively.
A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.
Which of the following interventions is essential when working with a client who has antisocial personality disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When working with a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to set strict limits on their behavior. This disorder is characterized by manipulative behavior, impulsivity, and deceitfulness. By setting strict limits, the nurse can establish boundaries to prevent the client from manipulating others or engaging in disruptive behaviors. Monitoring intake and output (Choice A) is not directly related to managing antisocial personality disorder. Providing diversion (Choice C) or limiting visits from family or friends (Choice D) may not address the core issues associated with this disorder, such as manipulation and boundary violations.
Which defense mechanism would the nurse conclude a female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, who washes her hands more than 20 times a day, is using to ease anxiety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Undoing.' Undoing is a defense mechanism where the individual tries to negate a previous act to relieve guilt or anxiety. In this case, the client washing her hands excessively is trying to 'undo' perceived contamination or guilt associated with not washing. Projection (choice B) involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or impulses to others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Introjection (choice C) is the process of internalizing beliefs or values of others, which is also not applicable in this context. Displacement (choice D) involves redirecting emotions from one target to another, which does not align with the client's behavior of handwashing as a response to anxiety in this case.
A client comes into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He is anxious, visibly upset, and keeps looking behind him to the waiting room. When the nurse asks his chief complaint, he says, 'My roommate is trying to kill me.' Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Upon initial assessment of a client who appears anxious and upset, with claims that need further exploration, the nurse's initial response should be to gather more information about the situation. By asking 'Why is your roommate trying to kill you?' the nurse shows empathy while trying to understand the patient's perspective. This open-ended question allows the nurse to assess the situation comprehensively. Options A and D jump to conclusions or suggest actions without understanding the situation. Option B focuses solely on medication without addressing the underlying issue. It is crucial to assess the situation further before taking any action or providing treatment.
Which behavior is most typical for clients with borderline personality disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Impulsive.' Clients with borderline personality disorder often exhibit impulsive, potentially self-damaging behaviors. Arrogance is more characteristic of narcissistic personality disorder, eccentric behavior aligns with schizotypal personality disorder, and dependent behavior is typical of dependent personality disorder. Therefore, the key feature of borderline personality disorder is impulsivity.
A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of 'suppression'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, '"I don't remember anything about what happened to me."?' Suppression involves willfully putting an unacceptable thought or feeling out of one's mind. In this case, the client is purposely choosing not to remember details of the traumatic event to avoid dealing with the associated emotions. Choice B, '"I'd rather not talk about it right now,"?' suggests avoidance or deflection rather than active suppression. Choice C, '"It's the other entire guy's fault! He was going too fast,"?' indicates blaming someone else for the situation, which is a form of defense mechanism known as externalization. Choice D, '"My mother is heartbroken about this,"?' expresses empathy towards the mother's emotions and does not demonstrate suppression of personal feelings.
When bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years, which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years, it is essential to gently retract the foreskin to cleanse the penis. This helps in preventing the buildup of bacteria and maintaining good hygiene. Reminding the child to clean his genital area (Option A) may not be effective due to the child's cognitive development level. Perineal care should not be deferred (Option B) as it is necessary for maintaining hygiene at any age. Asking the parents why the child is not circumcised (Option D) is not relevant to the immediate care required during bathing.
Which intervention should the nurse use for a client who hallucinates, yells, and curses throughout the day?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client experiences hallucinations, yells, and curses, it is essential to seek to understand the underlying meaning of their behavior. All behavior has significance, and understanding the client's perspective can guide appropriate interventions. Ignoring the behavior may exacerbate the situation and isolating the client could lead to increased anxiety and further acting out. Explaining the impact on others is not helpful in this scenario as the client is not intentionally hallucinating; yelling and cursing are responses to the hallucinations.
A client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states, 'I want to go outside now and smoke. It takes forever to get anything done here!' Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best nursing action is to review the schedule of outdoor breaks and provide concrete information about the schedule. Suggesting a nicotine patch (Option A) is not suitable as the client wants to smoke. Reassuring the client about another break (Option B) does not address the client's frustration and does not promote effective communication. Having the client leave the unit with another staff member (Option C) is not appropriate as it goes against unit rules and does not address the client's concerns. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client to provide clarity and address the client's frustration effectively.
Which of the following actions is most appropriate when working with a client who is extremely angry?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When dealing with an angry client, it is crucial to employ techniques that can help de-escalate the situation or ensure safety while providing care. If the client's behavior is escalating or they are fixating on a particular topic that is fueling their anger, it is advisable to temporarily change the subject. This technique can serve as a distraction from the initial trigger, allowing the client to refocus their thoughts and emotions. Placing a hand on the client's shoulder may not be well-received as physical touch can escalate the situation. Maintaining close proximity might be perceived as confrontational rather than building trust. Closing the door for privacy is important but may not directly address the client's anger or help in de-escalation.
The client is in the maintenance stage based on the transtheoretical model of health behavior change. Which stage is the client in?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is in the maintenance stage of human behavior change. During this stage, the client has successfully incorporated the changes into their lifestyle. The maintenance stage typically begins 6 months after the action stage and continues indefinitely. The action stage lasts for 6 months from when the client initially incorporates the changes. In the preparation stage, the client starts realizing that the benefits of change outweigh the disadvantages and starts making small changes to prepare for major changes in the following month. The contemplation stage involves the client considering whether to make changes in the next 6 months. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's consistent adherence to the diet and exercise program for 8 months places them in the maintenance stage of behavior change.
The client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns is at risk of infection. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the use of careful handwashing technique. Proper handwashing is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of infectious organisms. Option A, administration of plasma expanders, addresses hypovolemia in burn patients but does not directly decrease the risk of infection. Option C, application of a topical antibacterial cream, is beneficial but not as effective as proper handwashing in preventing infection. Option D, limiting visitors, may help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but is not as critical as ensuring healthcare providers maintain strict hand hygiene, which is the cornerstone of infection control in any healthcare setting.
Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.
When assessing an older adult, which vital sign changes would the nurse recognize as occurring with aging?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing an older adult, the nurse should be aware that with aging, systolic blood pressure tends to increase, resulting in widened pulse pressure. While in many older individuals both systolic and diastolic pressures increase, the pulse rate and body temperature typically do not increase with aging. Therefore, the correct answer is widened pulse pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because pulse rate does not necessarily increase with age, body temperature generally remains stable, and diastolic blood pressure may increase instead of decreasing in many older adults.
During a clinic visit, the mother of a 7-year-old reports to the nurse that her child is often awake until midnight playing and is then very difficult to awaken in the morning for school. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain in response to the mother's report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a school-age child has difficulty going to sleep and waking up in the morning, it is important to assess the family's home environment. This includes factors such as bedtime rituals, noise levels, lighting, use of electronic devices, and overall sleep hygiene practices. Understanding the home environment can help identify issues that may be contributing to the child's sleep problems and guide the development of a plan to promote better sleep habits. Options A, B, and C are less relevant in this scenario. Sleep apnea typically causes daytime fatigue rather than resistance to bedtime. Assessing vital signs like blood pressure, pulse, and respirations is unlikely to provide insights into the child's sleep patterns. Monitoring REM sleep duration is not practical in a clinical setting and may not directly address the reported sleep issues in this case.
The nurse assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a nurse assesses a slowed IV rate by gravity with a healthy venous access site in a 2-year-old admitted for dehydration, the next step would be to check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole. This action ensures that the IV fluid can flow freely and reach the patient at the correct rate. Applying a warm compress proximal to the site (Choice A) is not indicated in this situation as it does not address the underlying issue of a slowed IV rate due to mechanical factors. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle (Choice C) or changing the IV solution bag (Choice D) are not the priority actions in this case. These choices do not address the issue of a slowed IV rate caused by kinks in the tubing or the height of the IV pole, which are more likely reasons for the problem observed.
During her shift at the hospital, a nurse receives a stern reprimand from a physician over something over which she had no control. The nurse does not respond. When she returns home that evening, she sees her children's toys all over the floor, gets mad, and begins to yell at them. Which form of defense mechanism is this nurse using?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Displacement is the process of redirecting feelings or impulses from one person to another. In this scenario, the nurse chose not to respond to the physician, but instead displaced her negative emotions onto her children, who are less threatening and more vulnerable. This defense mechanism allowed her to express her anger in a safer outlet. Symbolization involves representing unconscious feelings or impulses through symbols, not redirecting them. Suppression is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts or feelings out of awareness, not displacing them onto others. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or emotions to someone else, which is not evident in this case.
What initial treatment would the nurse expect for a preschool-aged child experiencing severe fear of the dark?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Repetition of brave statements is an effective initial treatment for preschool-aged children with severe fear of the dark. This technique involves encouraging the child to repeat positive and reassuring statements to themselves to build confidence and reduce fear. Prescription medication is not typically the first-line approach for this type of fear in children due to potential side effects and safety concerns. Mental health counseling and cognitive behavioral therapy may be considered if the fear persists or is severe, but they are usually not the initial treatments for preschool-aged children with fear of the dark.
When performing a return demonstration of using a gait belt for a female patient with right-sided weakness, which observation indicates that the caregiver has learned the correct procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assisting a patient with right-sided weakness using a gait belt, the caregiver must stand on the weak side of the patient to provide optimal support and security. By standing on the weak side and holding the gait belt from the back, the caregiver can effectively prevent falls and guide the patient's movements. This position allows for better control over the patient's balance. Standing on the strong side (option A) does not offer the necessary support if the patient leans towards the weak side. Standing behind the patient and holding both sides of the gait belt (option C) does not provide focused support to the weak side. Standing slightly in front and to the right (option D) may not offer adequate assistance to prevent falls on the weak side, making it an incorrect choice.
A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.
Which response would the nurse make to a client who says, 'The voices say I'll be safe only if I stay in this room, wear these clothes, and avoid stepping on the cracks between the floor tiles'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The response, 'I understand that these voices are real to you, but I want you to know that I don't hear them,' demonstrates empathy and validation of the client's experience while also gently bringing in the nurse's reality. This response acknowledges the client's feelings without reinforcing the hallucinations. Asking about the characteristics of the voices (Choice A) can inadvertently validate the hallucinations. Offering false reassurance (Choice B) may not be helpful as it does not address the client's distress. Encouraging the client to leave the room and keep busy (Choice D) is nontherapeutic as it disregards the client's experience and may increase anxiety.
A client experiences postpartum hemorrhage eight hours after the birth of twins. Following administration of IV fluids and 500 ml of whole blood, her hemoglobin and hematocrit are within normal limits. She asks the nurse whether she should continue to breastfeed the infants. Which of the following is based on sound rationale?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Nursing will help contract the uterus and reduce your risk of bleeding.' Stimulation of the breast during nursing releases oxytocin, which contracts the uterus. This contraction is especially important following hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because breastfeeding can actually help prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contractions. Choice C is incorrect as the blood transfusion is aimed at restoring the client's blood volume and should not significantly impact the babies. Choice D is incorrect as lactation should not be delayed, as breastfeeding can provide numerous benefits to both the mother and infants, including aiding in the prevention of postpartum hemorrhage.
What step should be taken when administering ear drops to an adult client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct step when administering ear drops to an adult client is to place the client in a side-lying position (A). This position allows for easier administration of the drops and helps prevent spillage. The dropper should be held approximately 1 cm (½ inch) above the ear canal (B) to ensure accurate delivery of the medication. Placing a cotton ball into the outermost canal (C) is unnecessary and may interfere with the absorption of the ear drops. Pulling the auricle down and back (D) is a technique used for children younger than 3 years old to straighten the ear canal, but it is not necessary for adults and may cause discomfort.
Which priority action would the nurse manager use to help the nurse who may be experiencing burnout?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct priority action for the nurse manager to help a nurse experiencing burnout is to assist the nurse in identifying personal responses to job stress. This involves recognizing work stressors in the environment and evaluating coping strategies to determine their effectiveness. While transferring the nurse to another unit could be a solution, the initial focus should be on self-awareness and coping strategies. Choosing a position on a low-stress unit and attending educational programs can be beneficial in reducing burnout, but they are not the primary steps to address burnout when it occurs.
Which thought process would the nurse document the mental health client is experiencing after the client says, 'The FBI is out to kill me'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse would document that the client is experiencing a delusion of persecution. A delusion of persecution is a fixed and firm belief of being harassed, in danger, or at the mercy of others, as illustrated by 'The FBI is out to kill me.' Hallucinations are perceived experiences that occur without actual sensory stimulation. Error in judgment refers to poor decision-making, not a distortion of reality like a delusion. A self-accusatory delusion involves accepting blame for an act that was never committed or a feeling that was never acted on. Therefore, the correct choice is 'Delusion of persecution.'
Which response would the nurse make to a client with schizophrenia who claims to be Joan of Arc about to be burned at the stake?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse would say, ''It seems like the world is a pretty scary place for you.'' This response allows the nurse to understand the symbolism, reflect on and acknowledge the client's feelings, and help preserve the client's integrity. The statement, ''Tell me more about being Joan of Arc,'' validates the client's delusion and does not test reality. The statement, ''We both know that you're not Joan of Arc,'' rejects the client's feelings and does not address the client's fears of being harmed; clients cannot be argued out of delusions. The statement, ''You're safe here, because we won't let you be burned,'' is false reassurance; the nurse is agreeing with the client's false perceptions of reality, which is nontherapeutic.
While conducting an intake assessment of an adult male at a community mental health clinic, the nurse notes that his affect is flat, he responds to questions with short answers, and he reports problems with sleeping. He reports that his life partner recently died from pneumonia. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is exhibiting normal grieving behaviors, so referral to a grief counselor is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Option B is relevant but is not a high-priority intervention compared to addressing the immediate grief support needs of the client. Option C is irrelevant at this time but might be important when determining the client's risk for contracting the illness. While antidepressant medication might be necessary based on further assessment, grief counseling is a more appropriate initial action as grief is a typical response to the loss of a loved one.
Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
The nurse plans care for a hospitalized patient who uses culturally based treatments. Which action by the nurse is best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best action for the nurse is to coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies. Many culturally based therapies can complement Western treatments and medications. It is essential for the nurse to integrate both traditional folk treatments and Western therapies to provide holistic care. Some culturally based treatments can effectively complement Western medicine in treating diseases. Encouraging the patient to continue some culturally based treatments during hospitalization can enhance their overall well-being. Asking the patient to discontinue cultural treatments or teaching that folk remedies interfere with Western therapies may not align with the patient's beliefs and could hinder their care.
What is the best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder is to establish clear boundaries. Individuals with this disorder struggle with impulsivity and have difficulty recognizing and respecting boundaries in their relationships. By establishing clear boundaries, it helps provide structure and consistency to the client, aiding in their treatment and management of the disorder. Exploring vocational possibilities may be important at some point, but it is not the priority intervention for managing borderline personality disorder. Discussing feelings of victimization, while common, may not be as effective initially due to the client's lack of insight and resistance. Spending 1 to 2 hours per day with the client may not be as productive as shorter, more focused interactions that are geared towards boundary reinforcement.
Which behavior best indicates that the client has received adequate preparation for the scheduled diagnostic studies?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is arriving early and waiting quietly to be called for the tests. This behavior indicates that the client is prepared, as early arrival suggests an expected degree of anxiety and the quiet waiting indicates a lower level of anxiety and adequate preparation. Asking for the tests to be explained again may signal inadequate explanation, nervousness, or poor memory. Checking the appointment card repeatedly or pacing up and down the hallway indicate a high level of anxiety, which could be associated with inadequate teaching. Nurses providing preprocedural teaching should assess for anxiety related to procedures, coping mechanisms, and retention of information post-teaching. If issues are identified, strategies such as paraphrasing information, having a support person present, seeking advice from someone who has undergone the procedure, or visiting the test center beforehand can be utilized.
A terminally ill client repeatedly talks about her son's upcoming wedding and how much she wants to attend. Which stage of the Kübler-Ross theory of death and dying is the client displaying?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client is displaying the stage of bargaining in the Kübler-Ross theory of death and dying. During the bargaining stage, individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or a different outcome in the face of impending death. In this scenario, the client expressing a desire to attend her son's wedding and discussing it frequently reflects a form of bargaining for additional time to be present for the event. Anger, on the other hand, involves extreme expressions of emotion ranging from irritation to rage. Denial is characterized by an inability to accept the reality of the situation. Acceptance signifies coming to terms with the circumstances and may lead to decreased interest in people and surroundings.
A client is discussing his personal feelings of self-esteem and self-concept with a nurse. Which of the following questions is most appropriate for assessing the client's personal identity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client's personal identity, it is essential for the nurse to inquire about aspects related to the client's self-perception and self-worth. Asking about what the client likes about his current life helps to explore his positive self-perceptions and areas of contentment. This question encourages the client to reflect on his present circumstances and identify aspects that contribute to his sense of personal identity. Choices A, B, and D are not as relevant for assessing personal identity as they focus on educational background, parental status, and future aspirations, respectively, rather than directly addressing the client's current self-perception and identity.
Which component of cultural competence is being demonstrated when the nurse motivates the immigrant to accept differences in the way a pregnant woman is cared for in her current residence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Cultural desire.' Cultural desire involves the nurse's motivation and commitment toward caring for individuals from diverse backgrounds. In this scenario, motivating the immigrant to accept differences in prenatal care reflects the nurse's genuine interest in providing culturally competent care. Cultural awareness involves self-examination of one's beliefs and biases. Cultural knowledge refers to understanding various cultural practices and beliefs. Cultural encounters focus on interactions across cultures to enhance communication and mutual understanding. Therefore, in this context, the nurse's actions align more closely with the concept of cultural desire.
When doing an admission assessment for a patient, the nurse notices that the patient pauses before answering questions about the health history. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient pauses before answering questions about their health history, it is important for the nurse to be patient and wait for the patient to answer the questions. Patients from different cultures may take time to consider a question carefully before responding. By waiting patiently, the nurse shows respect for the patient's pace and helps foster a trusting relationship. Asking a family member to answer instead may not provide accurate information from the patient themselves. Reminding the patient about other patients needing care could make the patient feel rushed or unimportant. Giving the patient an assessment form and pen does not address the underlying reason for the pause and may come across as dismissive of the patient's need for time to respond thoughtfully.
Which parameter would be assessed to determine the degree of anxiety being experienced by the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct parameter to assess the degree of anxiety experienced by a client is the perceptual field. As anxiety increases, perceptual fields tend to narrow. Memory state, creativity level, and delusional system are not directly related to the level of anxiety and are not appropriate parameters for determining the degree of anxiety. Memory state refers to the ability to remember, creativity level to the ability to generate new ideas or solutions, and delusional system to a set of false beliefs.
An older woman has lived alone since the death of her husband 10 years ago, and she has a long list of vague complaints. Which assessment is the priority for the home health nurse to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority assessment for the home health nurse in this scenario is to determine if there are safety issues. The client is an older woman living alone with a long list of vague complaints, indicating several risk factors. Ensuring her safety should be the primary concern. While assessing for feelings of loneliness, isolation, or grief is important, ensuring the client's safety takes precedence due to her vulnerable situation. Although assessing the availability of support systems is essential in a home health assessment, safety issues must be addressed first given the client's profile.
The nurse is preparing to administer 10 mL of liquid potassium chloride through a feeding tube, followed by 10 mL of liquid acetaminophen. Which action should the nurse include in this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Water should be instilled into the feeding tube between administering the two medications to maintain the patency of the feeding tube and ensure that the total dose of medication enters the stomach and does not remain in the tube. These liquid medications do not need to be diluted when administered via a feeding tube. Mixing the medications in one syringe can lead to interactions or alterations in the medications' properties. Withdrawing any fluid from the tube before instilling each medication can cause inaccurate dosing and incomplete administration. Therefore, the correct action is to administer water between the doses of the two liquid medications to ensure proper delivery and avoid any complications.
Which approach is best to use with a client who is angry and agitated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When dealing with an angry and agitated client, it is crucial to maintain a calm and consistent approach. Consistency allows the client to predict the caregiver's behavior, which can help reduce their anxiety and agitation. Confronting the client about their behavior may escalate the situation and increase their anger. Using distractions like turning on the television is not addressing the underlying issue and may not be effective in calming the client. Explaining to the client why their behavior is unacceptable is not suitable in the moment of agitation, as the client may not be in a state to attend to logical explanations and perceived criticisms should be avoided to prevent further escalation.
Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
After a client has a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks' gestation, the nurse notes that both she and her partner are visibly upset and crying. Which statement would be a therapeutic response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A therapeutic response in this situation is to offer support and empathy. Saying, 'I'll be here if you want to talk' gives the client and her partner the opportunity to express their emotions and seek comfort. It acknowledges their distress and assures them of the nurse's availability. Choice B, advising to relax to speed up the healing process, dismisses their current emotions and may hinder open communication. Choice C, suggesting getting pregnant again soon, minimizes their grief over the loss and may not be what the couple needs to hear at that moment. Choice D, stating it's best that the miscarriage happened early, is insensitive as it invalidates the couple's feelings of loss and grief. Grieving is a natural process, and the timing of the loss does not diminish its significance.
A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to explain that this behavior is expected. During normal development, fear of strangers becomes prominent beginning around age 6-8 months. Such behaviors include clinging to parents, crying, and turning away from the stranger. These fears and behaviors extend into the toddler period and may persist into preschool. Changing client care assignments (Choice A) is not necessary as the child's behavior is developmentally appropriate. Discussing the appropriate use of 'time-out' (Choice C) is not relevant in this situation as the child is displaying normal attachment behavior, not misbehavior. Explaining that the child needs extra attention (Choice D) may not be necessary as the child is likely seeking comfort from the familiar presence of the mother, which is a typical response in a stressful situation like being in a hospital environment.
A client at a local university claims to be the president of the university. Which type of delusion is the client displaying?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Grandiose.' This type of delusion involves an exaggerated sense of self-importance, where the individual believes they are a prominent figure or possess special abilities. In this scenario, the client claiming to be the president of the university is displaying grandiose delusions. Somatic delusions relate to bodily functions or sensations, which are not present in this case. Erotomanic delusions involve the fixed belief that another person is in love with the individual, which is not applicable here. Persecutory delusions involve the belief that one is being targeted or conspired against, which is also not demonstrated in the given situation.
A client injured in a motor vehicle accident was brought to the emergency department and taken immediately for a scan. The client's family arrives and asks about the client's condition. Which response would the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse to provide to the client's family is to assure them that they will be updated as soon as there is relevant information available. This response not only acknowledges the family's concern but also demonstrates the nurse's commitment to keeping them informed. Option A, providing false reassurances, is not advisable as it may impact the family's ability to cope with potential bad news. Option B, stating that the nurse has no information, is not helpful and can cause distress. Option C, directing the family to the primary health care provider, is not ideal as the nurse should strive to communicate directly with the family to establish trust and provide support.
A nurse stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the nurse for malpractice. Which is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith from malpractice claims, regardless of the client outcome. In this scenario, the nurse stopped at the scene voluntarily to render aid, which is protected under the Good Samaritan Act. This law shields individuals from legal liability when providing emergency care in good faith and without expectation of compensation. The Patient's Bill of Rights does protect clients, but in this case, the nurse's actions were protected by the Good Samaritan Act. Additionally, the state Board of Nursing would not likely revoke the nurse's license unless there was evidence of actions taken in bad faith or unreasonable care. The client would not win the lawsuit as the essential elements of malpractice, including duty, breach, causation, and damages, were not met in this situation.
While planning care for a 2-year-old hospitalized child, which situation would the nurse most likely expect to affect the behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Separation from parents.' Separation anxiety is most evident from 6 months to 30 months of age. It is the greatest stress imposed on a toddler by hospitalization. If separation is avoided, young children have a tremendous capacity to withstand other stress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while strange bed and surroundings, presence of other toddlers, and unfamiliar toys and games may contribute to some level of stress or discomfort, the separation from parents is the primary factor affecting the behavior of a 2-year-old hospitalized child.
When developing Jerry's plan of care, which of the following would NOT be helpful to include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Limiting choices would not be helpful in Jerry's plan of care. Providing options, even if among limited choices, offers the patient a sense of independence rather than imposing control. Providing structure is crucial, especially in transitioning from a psychiatric to a medical-surgical unit. Encouraging patient input in identifying triggers and effective methods for managing aggressive impulses is essential for empowerment and individualized care. Ensuring the availability and prompt delivery of PRN medications gives the patient a sense of control and security, assuring access to necessary medication when needed.
Which factor is most critical for a single mother of 2 children who recently lost her job and does not know what to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a crisis intervention, the priority is to identify available situational supports, such as family, friends, community resources, and social services, that can help the single mother and her children during this difficult time. Understanding the developmental history of the children may be important to assess their needs, but it is not the most critical factor in this immediate crisis. Exploring underlying unconscious conflicts is more suited for long-term therapy rather than crisis intervention. While the willingness to restructure lifestyle may eventually be necessary, the immediate focus should be on finding support systems to address the current crisis.
Which statement regarding an interpreter is correct?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that interpreting not only the language but also the culture is important. Health care facilities should provide professional interpreters to ensure accurate communication with clients who do not speak English proficiently. It is crucial for interpreters to understand and convey cultural nuances to prevent misunderstandings. Relatives or friends of the client should not serve as interpreters as they may not be impartial or adequately skilled. Providing literal word-for-word translations is not always effective as it may not capture the intended meaning. Interpreters should be available throughout the client's care process, not just during direct communication, to ensure effective and culturally sensitive care.
A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of "suppression"?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is "I don't remember anything about what happened to me." This statement indicates the use of suppression, which is the willful act of putting an unacceptable thought or feeling out of one's mind. In this case, the client is deliberately excluding memories of the traumatic event to protect their self-esteem. The other choices do not reflect suppression: Choice B shows avoidance or deflection, Choice C demonstrates blame shifting, and Choice D indicates empathy towards another individual.
By rolling contaminated gloves inside-out, the nurse is affecting which step in the chain of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the nurse rolls contaminated gloves inside-out, they are manipulating the mode of transmission in the chain of infection. The gloves, which are contaminated, act as a vehicle for transferring pathogens from the reservoir's portal of exit to a potential portal of entry. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the action of rolling contaminated gloves does not directly relate to the portal of entry, reservoir, or portal of exit in the chain of infection.
For which condition would electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) be used?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is indicated for severe clinical depression, especially in cases where clients do not respond well to psychotropic medications or require immediate intervention due to the severity of their depression. ECT is not typically used as a primary treatment for substance abuse disorders, antisocial personality disorder, or psychosis occurring in schizophrenia. While ECT is an effective intervention for severe depression, it is important to consider individual client needs and response to other treatment options before resorting to ECT.
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