Free PN Safe and Effective Care Environment practice for Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions (NCLEX PN). Answer 63 nursing exam-style questio
After undergoing gastric resection, the client is informed by the nurse that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. On the other hand, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. A large meal, regardless of nutrient content, can also delay gastric emptying due to the increased volume of food that needs to be processed.
How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client's mouth?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A 5-year-old child can have up to 20 temporary (deciduous or baby) teeth. The first tooth usually erupts by age 6 months, and the last by age 30 months. All temporary teeth are usually shed between 6 and 13 years of age. Therefore, a 5-year-old child should have up to 20 temporary teeth. The correct answer is 'up to 20.' Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the correct number of temporary teeth in a 5-year-old child's mouth is up to 20, not 10, 15, or 32.
The physician's role in case management includes all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'serving as the expert for resource utilization.' While physicians play a crucial role in case management, their primary focus is on medical diagnosis and treatment rather than resource utilization. Choices A, C, and D are all roles that physicians typically fulfill in case management. A physician participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients ensures comprehensive care, consulting with the case management team helps in coordinating timely orders, and contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services aids in providing appropriate care. Therefore, serving as the expert for resource utilization does not align with the primary responsibilities of a physician in case management.
Which of the following is not considered one of the five rights of medication administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The five rights of medication administration are dose, client, drug, route, and time. The correct answer is 'routine' as it is not commonly recognized as one of the essential rights in medication administration. Choice A, client, is necessary to ensure the right medication is administered to the right individual. Choice B, drug, is crucial to confirm the correct medication is given. Choice C, dose, is essential to ensure the right amount of medication is administered. Choice D, routine, is not typically included in the five rights of medication administration and is therefore the correct answer.
Ethics committees typically do not handle which of the following issues?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ethics committees primarily focus on addressing ethical dilemmas in healthcare. Issues like euthanasia, decisions regarding starting or stopping treatment, and the use of feeding tubes for nutritional support involve complex ethical considerations related to patient care and end-of-life decisions, which are commonly deliberated by ethics committees. However, nonpayment of bills is a financial matter and falls outside the typical scope of ethics committees' functions.
The nurse notes that a healthcare provider has documented the following prescription in a client's record: Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg stat once. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the healthcare provider. The prescription provided lacks crucial information such as the route of administration. Before administering any medication, the nurse must clarify any missing details with the provider, especially for a stat prescription that requires immediate administration. Drawing up or administering the medication without verifying the route of administration is unsafe and can lead to errors. Planning for the next shift nurse to administer the medication is not appropriate in this scenario as the stat order necessitates immediate action. Therefore, the best course of action is to contact the healthcare provider to obtain clarification on the prescription.
A nurse is supervising a new nursing graduate in various procedures. Which action by the new nursing graduate constitutes a negligent act?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Negligent acts in nursing include various errors that can harm the client, such as medication errors, intravenous therapy errors, burns, falls, failure to use aseptic technique, failure to provide adequate monitoring, and failure to report significant changes in a client's condition. In this scenario, using clean gloves to change a gastrostomy tube dressing is a negligent act because sterile gloves should be used when changing a dressing over broken skin. Choices A, B, and C are not negligent acts as they involve appropriate nursing actions: giving a verbal report, checking neurological signs, and contacting a healthcare provider about a change in a client's blood pressure.
For which of the following conditions might blood be drawn to assess uric acid levels?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Uric acid levels are commonly assessed in patients with gout. Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring uric acid levels helps in diagnosing and managing gout. Asthma, diverticulitis, and meningitis are not conditions where blood tests for uric acid levels are typically necessary. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis involves inflammation of the digestive tract, and meningitis is an infection of the meninges in the brain and spinal cord.
Which of the following tasks are appropriate for an LPN to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tasks appropriate for an LPN to perform include teaching, obtaining samples, and documenting. LPNs can educate clients on care practices, such as teaching a new mother how to care for her baby. Obtaining samples, like an occult blood sample, falls within the scope of an LPN's responsibilities. Assessments, especially initial assessments, should be conducted by a registered nurse or physician, making option C incorrect. Adjusting devices like a cervical traction device should be done based on direct orders from prescribing providers, not charge nurses, making option A inappropriate for an LPN's role.
The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before administering any medication, including IV Vancomycin, it is crucial to ensure that the client is not allergic to the medication. This is the most critical action to prevent any potential allergic reactions. While performing a physical assessment is important, it may not be as time-sensitive as checking for allergies. Obtaining lab values related to renal function is also significant with Vancomycin due to its potential nephrotoxicity, but ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies takes precedence. Reviewing peaks and troughs is important for monitoring drug levels, but it is a secondary step compared to checking for allergies prior to administration.
During shift change, a nurse is giving report to the oncoming LPN. Which of these is an inappropriate way to give shift report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'The nurse reports in the hallway, in SBAR format, and alerts the oncoming LPN about how rude the client was throughout the shift.' This choice is inappropriate because shift report should be given at the bedside, in SBAR format, and in an objective way. It is important to maintain professionalism and focus on the client's condition and care needs, rather than personal opinions or subjective comments. Reporting in the hallway may compromise patient privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate ways of giving shift report by focusing on relevant information, using SBAR format, and discussing client concerns after reviewing the chart, which promotes effective communication and continuity of care.
Which of the following is not an advanced directive?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Informed consent is the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention. It is not considered an advanced directive. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they are unable to communicate. A durable power of attorney for health care designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the patient. A health care proxy, which is another term for a durable power of attorney for health care, also involves appointing someone to make healthcare decisions for an individual if they become unable to do so. Therefore, the correct answer is 'informed consent,' as it is not an advanced directive but rather a different aspect of patient care.
The client is unsure about making medical decisions as their disease progresses and wants to appoint someone to make these decisions. Which of the following options would be most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'a healthcare proxy.' A healthcare proxy involves the client appointing an individual to make medical decisions on their behalf if they become unable to do so. This option allows the client to choose someone they trust to act in their best interests. Choice A, 'a living will,' is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment in case they are unable to communicate their decisions. While it is important, it does not involve appointing someone to make decisions. Choice B, 'informed consent,' is a process where a healthcare provider explains a treatment or procedure, including its risks and benefits, to a patient who can then decide whether to proceed. This is not about appointing someone to make decisions on the patient's behalf. Choice D, 'non-informed consent,' is not a valid concept in healthcare. Informed consent is crucial for respecting a patient's autonomy and decision-making capacity.
What is the best definition of ethics in nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ethics in nursing refers to the moral principles that govern a nurse's behavior and decision-making. It involves being able to differentiate right from wrong, making choices that are morally sound, and upholding integrity in patient care. While advocating for the client (choice A) is an important aspect of nursing care, it does not fully encompass the broad concept of ethics. Knowing your scope of practice (choice B) is essential for safe and competent care but is not a comprehensive definition of ethics. Being willing to report violations (choice D) is part of ethical practice, but it is not the core definition of ethics in nursing.
While documenting on a paper form, the nurse realizes they have made a mistake writing the progress note. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario described, it is essential for the nurse not to alter the original progress note. Option B is the correct course of action as it maintains the integrity of the documentation while acknowledging the error for transparency and accuracy. Using a black marker (Option A) or whiteout (Option C) can be seen as an attempt to conceal the mistake, which is not in line with professional standards. Option D is incorrect because the mistake should be addressed within the documentation itself, not by informing the client directly about it.
People-related supervisory tasks include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
People-related supervisory tasks involve direct interaction with individuals performing the work. Coaching, encouraging, rewarding, evaluating, and facilitating are all part of these tasks as they focus on supporting and motivating employees. Target setting, on the other hand, is a task-centered responsibility that involves projecting goals or objectives to be accomplished. It focuses more on setting objectives and goals rather than directly interacting with individuals, making it the exception among the given choices.
A client scheduled for a left mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection is wearing a wedding band on her left ring finger. The nurse should take which action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In most situations, a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if there is a possibility that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is usually asked to sign a form that releases the agency from responsibility if a client's valuables are lost. After a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which can result in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why. This ensures the client's safety and prevents potential complications. Option A is incorrect because taping the wedding band may not be sufficient if swelling occurs. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to remove the wedding band. Option D is incorrect because it fails to provide the client with the necessary information about the potential risks of wearing the wedding band during surgery.
A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.
Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
The LPN notices a client with poor gait and balance. She is currently being treated for hypertension, but the nurse is concerned. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nurses should address any concerns regarding a client's health, even if they are not directly related to the reason for hospitalization. In this case, the nurse noticing the client's poor gait and balance should communicate these concerns to the attending physician. The correct course of action is to request a referral to physical therapy, as this specialized intervention can help address the client's issues effectively. Adding gait/balance training to the care plan without professional assessment and intervention may not be appropriate. Doing nothing is not in line with providing comprehensive care, and referring the client to the hospital gym is not as effective as a referral to physical therapy for addressing gait and balance issues.
A 51-year-old client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig disease) is admitted to the hospital because his condition is deteriorating. The client tells the nurse that he wants a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse should provide the client with which information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client requests a DNR order, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider so that the provider may discuss the request with the client. A DNR order should be written, not verbal, following agency and state guidelines. Therefore, the correct answer is that the DNR request should be discussed with the healthcare provider, who will write the order. Option A is incorrect as oral consent is not sufficient for a DNR order. Option B is incorrect because the client, not the family, has the authority to request a DNR order. Option D is incorrect because the healthcare provider discusses the request with the client but does not make the final decision.
A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in the nursing unit. Which note(s) in a client's record indicate an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A case manager is a healthcare professional responsible for coordinating a client's care from admission through and after discharge. They evaluate and update the plan of care as needed, monitoring for unexpected outcomes and providing follow-up. A temperature of 100.6°F in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected outcome that requires follow-up due to the potential indication of an infection. Choices A, C, and D describe expected outcomes and appropriate self-care management. The client self-irrigating their colostomy, a post-surgical client having adequate urine output, and a newly diagnosed diabetic self-administering insulin are all positive indicators of self-care and expected outcomes, not requiring immediate follow-up.
Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Staphylococcus is considered normal body flora as it is commonly found on the skin, being a part of the normal microbiota. While streptococcus in the nares can be part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, it is not as common or as widespread as staphylococcus on the skin. Candida albicans in the vagina is not considered normal flora; it is a common opportunistic pathogen in the vagina. Pseudomonas in the blood is also not considered normal body flora; pseudomonas is not typically found in the blood as part of the normal microbiota.
A case manager is reviewing notations made in clients' records. Which note indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A case manager is responsible for coordinating a client's care and monitoring for unexpected outcomes. The situation that indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up is when a client exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy. This indicates a deteriorating condition that requires urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D describe expected outcomes or normal findings related to specific conditions, which do not demand immediate follow-up.
A new nurse employed at a community hospital is reading the organization's mission statement. The new nurse understands that this statement is written for which purpose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'To outline what the organization plans to accomplish.' A mission statement expresses the purpose or reason for an organization's existence, outlining what it aims to achieve. It often includes statements of philosophy, purpose, and goals. This statement serves as a benchmark for evaluating the organization's performance. The mission statement is not meant to identify policies and procedures (Choice B) or describe employee benefits (Choice C). Choice B specifies the administrative guidelines and protocols of the organization, while Choice C pertains to the perks available to employees. Choice D is incorrect as the rules of the organization that employees must follow are usually detailed in employee handbooks or codes of conduct, not in the mission statement.
Several passengers aboard an airliner suddenly become weak and suffer breathing difficulty. The diagnosis is likely to be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most likely cause of groups of individuals suddenly experiencing similar signs of illness all at once is a chemical exposure. In this scenario, considering the sudden onset of symptoms in multiple passengers on an airliner, the symptoms are more indicative of a chemical exposure rather than Asian flu, bacterial pneumonia, or an allergic reaction. Asian flu, bacterial pneumonia, and allergic reactions do not typically manifest in a way that would affect a group of individuals simultaneously. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is likely to be a chemical exposure.
Which of the following ethnic groups is at highest risk in the United States for pesticide-related injuries?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Hispanic.' Hispanic individuals in the United States are at a higher risk for pesticide-related injuries due to their representation among migrant workers in agricultural settings. This exposure to pesticides in their work environments increases their risk compared to other ethnic groups. Choice A, 'Native American,' although indigenous populations may face environmental health disparities, the higher risk in this context is among Hispanic individuals. Choice B, 'Asian-Pacific,' and Choice C, 'Norwegian,' do not have the same level of exposure to pesticides as Hispanic migrant workers, making them less susceptible to pesticide-related injuries.
A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to contact the health care provider. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. Additionally, the affected client experiences greater pain during passive motion compared to active motion. In this situation, it is crucial to notify the health care provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Contacting the health care provider is essential to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Checking for more pain medication, encouraging active range of motion exercises, or repositioning the client may not address the underlying issue of acute compartment syndrome and could delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the priority action should be to involve the healthcare provider for prompt assessment and treatment.
A nurse discusses staff empowerment with the nursing team. The nurse explains that staff empowerment has which function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Staff empowerment fosters the growth of others and facilitates their development so that they are less dependent on their leader. This empowerment is about enhancing skills and autonomy, not about reprimanding or punishing others (Choice B). Empowerment involves shared decision-making and autonomy, not unilateral decision-making by the leader (Choice C). Moreover, staff empowerment does not mean that staff should make every decision regarding operational aspects like employee scheduling (Choice D). It is primarily focused on developing individuals' capabilities and fostering independence within the team.
An LPN is talking with a client scheduled to undergo a vasectomy in the next few minutes. He states, "I know I signed the form and all, but I'm not feeling so sure of this. It can be reversed pretty easily, right?"? What is the LPN's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response for the LPN is to acknowledge the client's concerns and offer to provide more information. By offering to get the doctor to answer any additional questions, the LPN shows respect for the client's right to informed consent. Option A provides some information but dismisses the client's uncertainty and implies they won't regret the decision, which may not be the case. Option B acknowledges nervousness but doesn't directly address the client's request for more information. Option D attempts to reassure the client but fails to address the need for additional questions to be answered by the doctor.
Regardless of their practice area, nurses should be concerned with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
All nurses should be concerned with preventing the transmission of microorganisms to themselves and others. A primary way to achieve this is through asepsis. Nursing practice emphasizes providing a safe environment to shield clients, family, and healthcare providers from infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While drug-resistant bacteria, critical microorganisms, and overprescription of bacteriostatic drugs are important, nurses' primary focus should be on preventing microorganism transmission to ensure safety and well-being.
A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.
The mother of a child who weighs 45 lb asks a nurse about car safety seats. The nurse tells the mother to place the child in which car safety seat?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to place the child in a booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child. A child needs to remain in a car safety seat until he or she weighs 40 lb. Once the child has outgrown the car safety seat, a booster seat is used. Booster seats are designed to raise the child high enough so that the restraining straps are correctly positioned over the child's chest and pelvis, providing optimal safety. Placing a child in a booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat due to potential airbag-related injuries. Additionally, car safety seats are used for children weighing less than 40 lb and are placed in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing position for maximum protection.
Which of the following is not an indication for pelvic ultrasonography?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pelvic ultrasonography is commonly used to assess various conditions. Choices A, B, and D are all valid reasons for performing pelvic ultrasonography. Measuring uterine size helps evaluate conditions like fibroids, while detecting multiple pregnancies is essential for prenatal care. Furthermore, identifying foreign bodies can aid in diagnosing certain conditions. However, assessing renal size is typically not a primary reason for pelvic ultrasonography, making choice C the correct answer.
A small amount of bubbling is seen in the water seal of a pleural drainage system when a client coughs. What should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A small amount of bubbling is a normal finding in the water seal of a pleural drainage system when a client coughs. It is only a problem to find continuous, excessive bubbling in the water seal, which indicates a leak. Checking the system for leaks would be appropriate if there is continuous, excessive bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or changing the drainage system is not necessary in response to a small amount of bubbling during a cough, as this is considered a normal finding.
Which of the following enzymes is indicative of pancreatitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Amylase is elevated in conditions of pancreatic inflammation, such as pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the leakage of amylase into the bloodstream. Elevated levels of amylase are a key diagnostic marker for pancreatitis. Alkaline phosphatase is associated with liver and bone conditions, not pancreatitis. Acid phosphatase is more related to prostate health and is not specific to pancreatitis. Creatine phosphokinase is found in tissues like muscle and brain, and elevated levels are seen in conditions like muscle injury or heart attack, not pancreatitis.
Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.
When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.
Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.
When working with elderly clients, the healthcare provider should keep in mind that falls are most likely to happen to the elderly who are:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'hospitalized.' Elderly individuals are at a higher risk of falls, especially when they are in new environments like hospitals due to unfamiliarity with the surroundings, medications, and potential mobility challenges. Being in a hospital can disrupt their usual routines and increase the risk of falls. Choice A ('in their 80s') is not as directly related to the increased risk of falls in a hospital environment. Choice B ('living at home') is a common setting for the elderly but does not address the specific risk associated with being hospitalized. Choice D ('living on only Social Security income') is unrelated to the risk of falls based on the environment.
Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.
What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.
Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.
When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client needs oxygen therapy, the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Higher flow rates must be delivered by a mask. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they suggest flow rates that exceed what can be effectively delivered through a nasal cannula.
A client with an ileus is placed on intestinal tube suction. Which of the following electrolytes is lost with intestinal suction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client with an ileus is placed on intestinal tube suction, the primary electrolyte lost is sodium chloride. Duodenal intestinal fluid contains potassium (K+), sodium (Na+), and bicarbonate. Suctioning is done to remove excess fluids, leading to a decrease in the client's sodium chloride levels. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as calcium, magnesium, and potassium are not the primary electrolytes lost during intestinal suction in a client with an ileus.
What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.
Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Huntington's chorea is a neurological disorder characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. Epilepsy is characterized by seizures, not writhing, twisting movements. Parkinson's disease presents with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, not writhing, twisting movements. Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system but does not typically involve writhing, twisting movements. Therefore, the correct answer is Huntington's chorea as it specifically manifests with these characteristic movements.
In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.
Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Quality in any context is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and exceeding customer expectations. It also involves conforming to standards to ensure consistency and reliability. Merely performing at the minimally acceptable level does not encompass the essence of quality, as it sets the bar at the lowest level of acceptability rather than aiming for excellence or customer satisfaction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level,' as this choice falls short in capturing the comprehensive definition of quality.
How often should physical restraints be released?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.
An Asian family has an elderly member with the latest stage of Alzheimer's disease. The physician has recommended placement in a long-term care facility, but the family refuses. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "What can I do to assist you to care for him at home?"? This response shows cultural sensitivity and respect for the family's values. In many Asian cultures, there is a strong tradition of caring for elders at home rather than in a long-term care facility. By offering assistance to the family in caring for their elderly member at home, the nurse shows understanding and support. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not acknowledge or respect the family's cultural beliefs and values regarding caring for elderly family members.
A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs does not indicate CHF?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Compulsive behavior is not a clinical sign typically associated with congestive heart failure (CHF). CHF commonly presents with symptoms such as increased body weight due to fluid retention, elevated heart rate as the heart works harder to pump blood effectively, and lower extremity edema caused by fluid buildup. While behavioral changes can occur in response to illness, compulsive behavior is not a typical indicator of CHF. Choices A, B, and C are more commonly linked to CHF and should be monitored in patients with this condition.
To remove hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, the nurse should ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens. This approach helps prevent scratching the cornea. Gently maneuvering the upper and lower eyelids assists in loosening the lens for easy removal. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye, grasping the lens, or wearing sterile gloves are not recommended methods for removing hard contact lenses. It is crucial to handle the situation delicately to avoid causing harm or discomfort to the client.
The nurse uses prioritization to determine all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: "treatment procedures." Prioritization in nursing involves determining the order of importance or urgency of tasks. Treatment procedures are standards of care that need to be followed as defined by the facility or nursing unit. They are not typically subject to prioritization but are mandatory based on established protocols. Time allotment for certain tasks, appropriate interventions, and the need for client education are all aspects that can be influenced by prioritization. For instance, prioritizing tasks helps in managing time effectively, selecting the most suitable interventions, and identifying the necessity for client education as part of the care plan.
A client expresses anxiety about having magnetic resonance imaging performed. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response acknowledges the client's anxiety and offers a practical solution to alleviate it, showing empathy and addressing the client's concerns. Offering a sedative to help relax during the test is a proactive approach to managing the client's anxiety. Choices B and C dismiss the client's feelings by invalidating their anxiety, which can further escalate their distress. Choice D downplays the client's feelings by implying they should not be worried, which does not effectively address the client's emotional state.
What is the correct instruction to give a client undergoing mammography?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client undergoing mammography is not to use underarm deodorant. Underarm deodorant can cause confusing shadows on the X-ray film, affecting the accuracy of the mammogram. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While wearing comfortable clothing is advisable, it is not the primary instruction for mammography. Avoiding caffeine and bringing a list of current medications are not specific instructions related to mammography preparation and are therefore not the correct answers.
Which of the following nursing diagnoses might be appropriate as Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
As Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop, impaired physical mobility is a relevant nursing diagnosis due to symptoms like a shuffling gait and rigidity that can impair movement. Dysreflexia is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease; it is more commonly seen in spinal cord injuries. Hypothermia is a condition of low body temperature and is not directly related to Parkinson's disease progression. Impaired Dentition involves issues with teeth and oral health, which are not specific to Parkinson's disease complications.
Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Risk for Injury.' Epileptic clients are at risk for injury due to complications of seizure activity, such as falls that could lead to head trauma. 'Dysreflexia' is not typically associated with epilepsy but rather with spinal cord injury. 'Urinary Retention' is not a common nursing diagnosis for epileptic clients unless specifically indicated. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' may not be a priority nursing diagnosis compared to the immediate risk of injury in epileptic clients.
A client with cirrhosis of the liver presents with ascites. The physician is to perform a paracentesis. For safety, the nurse should ask the client to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When performing a paracentesis, the client must be sitting up to allow the fluid to settle in the lower abdomen. To prevent trauma to the bladder while inserting a needle to aspirate the fluid, the bladder must be empty. Choice A is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can make the procedure more difficult due to increased abdominal distension. Choice B is unrelated to the procedure of paracentesis. Choice D is incorrect as the client should be sitting up, not in the prone position, during the procedure.
Which type of diet should the nurse provide to help a client who has major burns maintain a positive nitrogen balance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with major burns are in a hypermetabolic state, leading to increased protein catabolism. Therefore, a high-protein diet is essential to help them maintain a positive nitrogen balance and support wound healing. High carbohydrate diets do not directly contribute to achieving a positive nitrogen balance, making choice B incorrect. Similarly, low carbohydrate diets are not recommended for clients with major burns as carbohydrates provide essential energy needed for healing. Low protein diets are contraindicated for clients with major burns as they require higher protein intake to support tissue repair and prevent further breakdown.
Which of the following statements indicates adequate dietary understanding in a client with constipation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "I should increase my intake of apples."? This statement indicates adequate dietary understanding in a client with constipation because apples are a good source of fiber, which helps alleviate constipation. Adequate fiber intake is essential for promoting bowel regularity. Choices A and B are incorrect as decreasing fluids and activity level can worsen constipation. Insufficient fluid intake can lead to hard stools, exacerbating constipation. Decreasing activity can also slow down bowel movements. Choice D is incorrect because milk is not a high-fiber food and may not effectively address constipation. While milk can have a mild laxative effect on some individuals, it is not a primary solution for constipation, especially when compared to high-fiber foods like apples.
Which of the following statements from a client may indicate that they are at a higher risk for a fall?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'I need to get out of bed to go to the bathroom now. I cannot find my glasses but cannot wait.' This statement indicates that the client is in a hurry and unable to find their glasses, which could increase the risk of a fall due to impaired vision. Choice A about putting on non-skid socks shows the client's awareness of fall prevention, reducing the risk. Choice B demonstrates the client's request for bedrails to be raised, which is a safety measure, reducing the risk as well. Choice C suggests the client's readiness to walk a longer distance with a cane, indicating progress in mobility but not necessarily a higher fall risk.
A nurse in charge of a long-term care facility who is working with a nursing assistant on the night shift prepares to take a break. To ensure client safety during the break, which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse"s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. Conducting client rounds before taking the break is crucial to assess the clients' conditions and address any immediate needs, ensuring their safety. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse"s break is not appropriate as the nurse should handle this responsibility. Leaving the nursing unit to get coffee is not recommended as the nurse should stay within the unit to respond promptly to any client needs. Asking the nursing assistant to administer medication or make clinical decisions is outside the scope of their practice and should not be delegated.
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