Free PN Physiological Integrity practice for NCLEX PN Exam Cram (NCLEX PN). Answer 81 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trac
A client is admitted to telemetry with a diagnosis of diabetes at 3pm. At 10pm, the client is unresponsive. BP is 98/64, Resp 38, HR 100, T 97. The nurse notes a fruity smell on the client's breath. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which acid-base imbalance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Based on the client's unresponsiveness, fruity breath smell, and the presence of diabetes, the nurse can infer that the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a complication of diabetes characterized by the accumulation of ketones in the body, leading to metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath smell is due to the presence of ketones. Therefore, the correct acid-base imbalance in this scenario is metabolic acidosis. Choice A, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the scenario does not provide evidence of primary respiratory dysfunction. Choice B, respiratory alkalosis, is incorrect as the client's condition does not align with the typical causes and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis. Choice D, metabolic alkalosis, is incorrect as the symptoms and history provided do not suggest a state of metabolic alkalosis.
What vitamin is important in preventing peripheral neuritis in a client with alcohol abuse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Fat-soluble vitamins.' Vitamin B, not Vitamin D, is crucial in preventing peripheral neuritis in individuals with alcohol abuse. Vitamin B deficiency, particularly B1 (thiamine), is commonly associated with peripheral neuritis in alcoholics. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Vitamin D is not directly related to peripheral neuritis, and potassium deficiency typically presents with different symptoms.
One week ago, a client was involved in a motor vehicle crash (MVC) and was brought to the Emergency Department (ED). In the emergency department, the client received two stitches to the forehead and was sent home. Today, the client's spouse notes that the client 'acts like he is drunk' and cannot control his right foot and arm. The nurse will suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Yes! The nurse will suspect a subdural hematoma. In this case, the client's presentation of acting intoxicated and experiencing loss of motor control in the right foot and arm is indicative of an acute subdural hematoma. This condition can occur after a head injury with a slow venous bleed, where symptoms may not show until compensation mechanisms are overwhelmed. Meningitis (choice A) usually presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Absence seizure (choice B) is characterized by brief periods of unconsciousness without convulsions. Meniere's disease (choice D) manifests with symptoms like vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, which do not match the client's current symptoms.
A homeless person has been admitted to the medical unit and placed on airborne precautions for suspected active TB infection. The nurse will assess for these signs and symptoms (Select one that doesn't apply).
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Weight gain.' When assessing for signs and symptoms of active TB infection, weight loss is typically observed rather than weight gain. Other common signs and symptoms include fatigue, bloody sputum, and diaphoresis during sleep. Fatigue, bloody sputum, and diaphoresis during sleep are all associated with active TB infection. Weight gain is not typically seen in active TB; instead, patients usually experience weight loss due to the impact of the infection on their overall health.
What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.
Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client is being treated with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs), it is essential to monitor for potential side effects on blood parameters. Some AEDs can lead to blood dyscrasia, which includes conditions like aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, drawing a complete blood count and differential helps in identifying these adverse effects early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary concern when monitoring blood parameters in clients on AEDs is the risk of blood dyscrasia, not changes in hematocrit due to vascular volume, white blood cell reduction, or immune modulation.
Which symptoms is the client who overdosed on barbiturates most likely to exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is bradypnea and bradycardia. Barbiturates are central nervous system (CNS) depressants, which will slow down the respiratory rate (bradypnea) and heart rate (bradycardia). Choice B, hyperthermia and drowsiness, is incorrect as barbiturate overdose typically does not cause hyperthermia but rather hypothermia. Hyperreflexia and slurred speech (Choice C) are more indicative of stimulant overdoses rather than CNS depressants like barbiturates. Tachycardia and psychosis (Choice D) are also not typically seen in barbiturate overdose, as these drugs tend to depress the CNS rather than cause symptoms of increased heart rate or psychosis.
After administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously into the abdomen, which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox) into the abdomen, the nurse should remove the needle and engage the needle safety device. Rubbing the injection site after the needle is withdrawn is not recommended as it may cause irritation and bruising. Having the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes is unnecessary for a subcutaneous injection into the abdomen. Applying heat to the injection site is not indicated after administering enoxaparin subcutaneously; it could increase the risk of bleeding or bruising at the injection site.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with Class III/IV Pulmonary Hypertension. The nurse explains to the client that Lanoxin is being administered to the client in order to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to improve right ventricular function. Lanoxin, also known as digoxin, is a cardiac glycoside that works by slowing the heart rate and increasing myocardial contractility, especially in the ventricles. This action helps improve the efficiency of the heart's pumping function, particularly the right ventricle in conditions like pulmonary hypertension. Choice A, managing peripheral edema, is not directly related to Lanoxin's mechanism of action. Choice C, increasing pulmonary pressure, is incorrect as Lanoxin is not used to increase pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Choice D, constricting the pulmonary vessels, is incorrect as Lanoxin does not cause vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vessels but rather acts on the heart's contractility.
Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.
The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.
While performing wound care to a donor skin graft site, the nurse notes some scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood. What is the nurse's next action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the nurse notes scabbing at the edges and a black collection of blood, it indicates the presence of debris that needs to be addressed. Leaving the scabbed area alone and applying extra ointment may not address the underlying issue and could lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important in some cases, but immediate action is required to prevent infection in this situation. Gently removing the debris and re-dressing the wound is the correct course of action to promote healing and prevent complications.
A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.
How can light therapy be effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Light therapy can be effective in treating problems associated with sleep patterns, stress, moods, jaundice in newborns, and seasonal affective disorders. While light therapy is not typically used for overcoming weight problems or helping with allergies, it is specifically known for its benefits in regulating sleep patterns. Therefore, the correct answer is 'working with sleep patterns.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as light therapy is not commonly utilized for overcoming weight problems, helping with allergies, or as a general alternative medical treatment.
When teaching about preventable diseases, the importance of getting the following vaccines should be emphasized:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vaccines are crucial in preventing communicable diseases. Smallpox has been eradicated globally, so its vaccine is no longer used. Polio, pertussis, and measles are diseases that are controlled by routine childhood immunization. While smallpox has been eradicated, these diseases still exist, making it essential for children to be vaccinated against them. Choices A, B, and C include diseases that are not prevented by vaccination or are not related to routine immunizations, making them incorrect choices.
What are the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is sodium and chloride. These two electrolytes are the major components of extracellular fluid. Potassium and phosphate (Choice B) are not the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid. Potassium is primarily an intracellular ion, and phosphate is more abundant in the intracellular fluid and bones. Sodium and phosphate (Choice D) are also not the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid. Chloride plays a crucial role in maintaining electrolyte balance and is predominantly found in extracellular fluid alongside sodium.
Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can further burden the kidneys and worsen the condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk for hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels. Therefore, these clients should actually be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium to maintain adequate levels and prevent complications associated with hypokalemia.
A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. In this case, the client's BMI is calculated as 35, indicating obesity. A BMI of 27 falls within the overweight range, not obesity (which starts at 30). Choices A and B are incorrect because a BMI of 35 indicates obesity, not normal limits or being lower than normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, indicating obesity based on the BMI calculation.
While undergoing hemodialysis, the client becomes restless and tells the nurse he has a headache and feels nauseous. Which of the following complications does the nurse suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client undergoing hemodialysis is experiencing symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. These symptoms are indicative of an air embolus, a serious complication that can occur during hemodialysis. Air embolus happens when air enters the bloodstream and can lead to symptoms like restlessness, a headache, and nausea. It is crucial for the nurse to suspect and address this complication promptly to prevent further harm to the client. Choices A and D (Infection) are less likely in this case, as the symptoms presented are more suggestive of an air embolus rather than an infection. Choice B (Disequilibrium syndrome) is also less likely as the symptoms described are not typical of this syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Air embolus.
Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Zofran is a serotonin antagonist commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin receptors. Metoclopramide (Reglan) acts on dopamine receptors, hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine, and prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist. While these medications can also be used for nausea and vomiting, they do not primarily function as serotonin antagonists like ondansetron.
When treating anemia in clients with renal failure, erythropoietin should be given in conjunction with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with renal failure. To effectively increase red blood cell production, adequate levels of iron, folic acid, and B12 are necessary. These nutrients play crucial roles in erythropoiesis. Choices B, an increase in protein in the diet, is not directly related to enhanced erythropoiesis and can potentially worsen uremia. Choices C and D, vitamins A and C, and an increase in calcium in the diet, are not directly involved in red blood cell production and are not essential in this context.
The client with peripheral vascular disease is reviewing self-care measures. Which of the following statements indicates proper self-care measures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "I have my wife examine the soles of my feet each day."? Clients with peripheral vascular disease should examine their feet daily for any signs of redness, dryness, or cuts. If the client is unable to do this themselves due to decreased sensation in their feet, a caregiver or family member should assist. Soaking feet in a hot tub should be avoided as the client may not be able to sense if the water is too hot, potentially causing burns. Walking barefoot can lead to injuries, so wearing shoes or slippers is recommended to minimize trauma. While quitting smoking is a positive step, using chewing tobacco can still constrict blood vessels, adversely affecting circulation in the extremities.
Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to transfuse neutrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection. Granulocyte transfusion is not routinely indicated to prevent infection in neutropenic clients. While neutrophils are essential in fighting infections and are beneficial in selected populations of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients who do not respond to antibiotics and are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production, routine granulocyte transfusion is not recommended. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a severely neutropenic client. Prohibiting fresh flowers and plants helps reduce the risk of exposure to environmental pathogens. Avoiding rectal suppositories minimizes the risk of introducing harmful bacteria. Excluding raw vegetables from the diet reduces the likelihood of foodborne infections.
What is pica?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pica is a disorder characterized by the ingestion of nonfood substances, which can lead to a clinical iron deficiency. It may be the first sign of an underlying issue. Individuals with pica consume a variety of nonfood items such as ice, clay, dirt, or paste. Choice A, dependency on alcohol, is incorrect as it is not related to pica. Choice B, increased iron in the diet, is incorrect because pica involves ingesting nonfood items rather than having an increased intake of iron. Choice C, the sickle cell trait, is unrelated to pica and is therefore incorrect.
Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. This type of prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease by early detection and treatment. In the case of gonorrhea, teaching the client how to prevent reinfection and further spread falls under secondary prevention because it aims to reduce the prevalence and morbidity of the disease. Choice A (primary prevention) involves measures to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place, such as vaccination. Choice C (tertiary prevention) focuses on managing the long-term consequences of a disease to prevent complications. Choice D (primary health care prevention) is not a recognized term in prevention strategies.
How can a diet high in fiber content benefit an individual?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A diet high in fiber content can help lower cholesterol levels. Fiber-rich foods such as grains, apples, potatoes, and beans are known to aid in reducing cholesterol by binding to cholesterol in the digestive system and preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect as the question does not specify losing weight rapidly but rather focuses on the benefits of a high-fiber diet, which includes aiding in weight management through promoting satiety and regulating digestion. Choice B is incorrect because while fiber helps manage blood sugar levels, it is not directly related to reducing diabetic ketoacidosis, a serious complication of diabetes. Choice D is incorrect as a high-fiber diet does not reduce the need for folate; however, it can aid in the absorption of folate and other essential nutrients.
What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36 mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within the normal range, indicating a state of balance and homeostasis. The pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), the PCO2 is normal (35-45 mmHg), and the HCO3 level is also normal (22-26 mEq/L). Choice A, 'metabolic alkalosis,' is incorrect because the pH, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are not indicative of metabolic alkalosis. Choice C, 'respiratory acidosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 values are not elevated. Choice D, 'respiratory alkalosis,' is incorrect as the pH and PCO2 levels are not decreased. Therefore, the ABG values provided do not correspond to any acid-base disturbance, confirming that the patient is in a state of homeostasis.
A client is complaining of difficulty walking secondary to a mass in the foot. The nurse should document this finding as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Morton's neuroma. Morton's neuroma is a small mass or tumor in a digital nerve of the foot, causing pain and difficulty walking. Hallux valgus is commonly known as a bunion, involving a bony bump at the base of the big toe. Hammertoe is a condition where one toe is bent abnormally at the middle joint, resembling a hammer. Plantar fasciitis is characterized by pain and inflammation in the arch of the foot, not by a mass causing difficulty walking. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe a mass in the foot leading to difficulty walking, unlike Morton's neuroma.
If a client is suffering from thyroid storm, the PN can expect to find on assessment:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In thyroid storm, there is an excess of thyroxine, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and hyperthermia (increased body temperature). Atrial fibrillation and palpitations are also commonly observed. Choices B and C are more indicative of hypothyroidism, where the thyroid is underactive, leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypothermia (decreased body temperature), and the development of a large goiter. Choice D, a calm, quiet client, is unlikely in a thyroid storm where the individual would typically present with symptoms of agitation and restlessness due to the hypermetabolic state.
A nurse is instructing a patient about the warning signs of Digitalis side effects. Which of the following side effects should the nurse tell the patient are sometimes associated with excessive levels of Digitalis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Palpitations and muscle weakness are commonly associated with excessive levels of Digitalis. Seizures, depression, and anxiety are not typically linked to Digitalis toxicity. Seizures could be more related to other medications or conditions, while depression and anxiety are not commonly reported side effects of Digitalis.
Which instruction should be given in a health education class regarding testicular cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for testicular cancer education is that testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower as it relaxes the scrotum and makes the exam easier. Testicular exams should be done monthly by all men starting around age 15, not after the age of 30 (Choice A) or on a daily basis (Choice B), which is unnecessary and may lead to unnecessary anxiety. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is not a normal finding (Choice C) and should be reported to a healthcare provider for further evaluation.
A mother brings her 13-month-old child with Down Syndrome to a pediatric clinic reporting muscle weakness and poor movement. The child's reflexes are noted to be diminished. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a child with Down Syndrome presenting with muscle weakness and diminished reflexes, an atlanto-axial dislocation is a concern. The priority action is to position the child's neck in a neutral c-spine posture to prevent further injury. This should be done before any movement or manipulation. Contacting the physician should follow to ensure appropriate evaluation and management. Initiating an IV is not indicated unless specifically ordered for a medical reason. Ordering an X-ray for a c-spine work-up should not be the first action as it may involve movement that could exacerbate the condition if an injury is present.
Which of the following situations requires nurse intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Patient confidentiality must be maintained at all times to respect the patient's privacy and dignity. Disclosing sensitive information like a patient's prognosis in a public setting violates confidentiality and can cause distress. The nurse should intervene in this situation and educate the nursing student about the importance of not discussing confidential patient information in public. Choices A, B, and D do not involve breaching patient confidentiality and do not require immediate nurse intervention. Choice A focuses on infection control measures, choice B relates to clinical assessment, and choice D is about the doctor's rounds, which are not urgent matters requiring immediate intervention.
A 46-year-old has returned from a heart catheterization and wants to get up to start walking 3 hours after the procedure. The nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to tell the patient to remain with the leg straight for at least another hour after a heart catheterization before starting ambulation. This period allows for proper healing and reduces the risk of complications such as bleeding or hematoma formation at the catheter insertion site. Starting ambulation too soon can disrupt the healing process and lead to adverse events. Choice B is incorrect because limited ambulation should not be initiated shortly after the procedure as it may increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as physical therapy consultation is not typically necessary for initial ambulation post-heart catheterization; this can be managed by nursing staff. Choice D is incorrect as keeping the leg straight for 6 hours is excessive and unnecessary, potentially leading to complications such as deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged immobility.
A patient has just been prescribed Minipress to control hypertension. The nurse should instruct the patient to be observant of the following:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Dizziness and light-headed sensations.' Minipress, a medication used to control hypertension, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Dizziness and light-headed sensations are common symptoms of hypotension. Weight gain, sensory changes in the lower extremities, and fatigue are not typically associated with Minipress or hypertension management. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
Which statement best describes electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Electrolytes are distributed unequally between intracellular and extracellular fluids. Sodium concentration is higher in extracellular fluid, while potassium concentration is higher in intracellular fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is 'There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid.' Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the typical distribution of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid.
What is the best nursing diagnosis for a client with newly diagnosed Diabetes Mellitus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis.' Newly diagnosed diabetics require education on their disease, medications, glucose testing, insulin injections, foot care, and sick-day plans. Choices A and D aim to prevent issues that do not currently exist for the client. Choice C, 'Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements,' is not the priority diagnosis for a newly diagnosed diabetic. While nutritional adjustments may be required for type I or type II diabetes, providing knowledge and education takes precedence at this stage.
When teaching a patient with COPD pulmonary exercises, what should be done?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to teach pursed-lip breathing techniques. Pursed-lip breathing helps to decrease the volume of air expelled by keeping the airways open longer, making it easier for patients with COPD to breathe out. Encouraging heavy lifting exercises (Choice B) is not suitable for patients with COPD as it can lead to increased shortness of breath. Limiting exercises due to respiratory acidosis (Choice C) is not correct; instead, exercises should be tailored to the patient's tolerance. Taking breaks every 10-20 minutes (Choice D) is not specific to the management of COPD pulmonary exercises.
A 22-year-old patient in a mental health lock-down unit under suicide watch appears happy about being discharged. Which of the following is probably happening?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, it is concerning that a patient under suicide watch is happy about being discharged as it may indicate that the patient's suicide plan has advanced. This change in behavior should be taken seriously as it can signal an increased risk of self-harm. Choices A, C, and D are less likely as the patient's happiness about discharge in this context is more indicative of a worsening situation rather than positive outcomes like being around family, clarifying future plans, or improving mood.
Which behavior by a new nurse would indicate to the charge nurse that this nurse is following standard precautions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant. Standard precautions require the use of gloves when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids. Clean gloves are suitable for this task as they provide adequate protection without being sterile. Choice B is incorrect because wearing the same gloves for different clients can lead to cross-contamination, violating standard precautions. Choice C is incorrect as sterile gloves are usually not required for changing a urine bag and nasogastric canister unless a specific aseptic technique is indicated; standard precautions do not demand sterile gloves for such tasks. Choice D is incorrect as donning a gown is not necessary for checking an IV pump unless there is a risk of exposure to bodily fluids that would necessitate full-body protection, which is not indicated in this scenario.
The nurse is preparing for a dressing change on a full thickness burn to the flank area. The orders include irrigating the wound with each dressing change. To irrigate the wound, what will the nurse use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When irrigating a wound, especially in the case of a full-thickness burn, it is crucial to use a solution that is gentle and non-irritating to the tissues. Sterile saline is the preferred choice for wound irrigation as it is isotonic and does not cause additional damage to the already compromised tissue. Distilled water lacks the electrolytes present in saline, Betadine scrub is not used for irrigation due to its potential to be cytotoxic, and tap water may introduce contaminants and microorganisms to the wound.
What is the priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing action for a laboring client dilated to 6 cm receiving an epidural is continuous monitoring of maternal blood pressure. This is crucial because epidural anesthesia can lead to a precipitous drop in blood pressure, which can be dangerous for both the mother and fetus by reducing cardiac output and placental perfusion. While frequent auscultation of the fetal heart rate is important, it is not the priority in this situation. Administering an IV fluid bolus of at least 500 cc may not be necessary if the client's blood pressure is stable. Monitoring the maternal temperature is also essential but takes precedence over blood pressure monitoring.
The nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and complains of swollen hands and feet. Which symptom below would cause the greatest concern?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is muscle spasms because they can be indicative of a severe condition like preeclampsia, which is a serious complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. Nasal congestion and hiccups are common discomforts during pregnancy and do not pose a severe risk to the client or fetus. A blood glucose level of 150, while slightly elevated, may not be alarming in a pregnant individual and can be managed through dietary modifications or medication adjustments. Muscle spasms, especially in the context of pregnancy, should be taken seriously and thoroughly assessed to rule out any underlying serious conditions.
Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.
The manic client has just interrupted the group session with the counselor for the 4th time, explaining that she already knows this information on 'dealing with others when you are down' and constantly gets up and goes to the front. What should the nurse do at this time?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this situation, it is important to redirect the client's energy and focus. Engaging the client in a purposeful activity like making another pot of coffee can help distract them from disruptive behavior and provide an outlet for their excess energy. This choice also helps in maintaining a therapeutic environment by involving the client in a constructive task. Asking the client to reflect on their behavior (Choice B) might not be effective during a manic episode as the client may not be in a state to critically analyze their actions. Asking the group to tell the client how they feel (Choice C) can escalate the situation and may not be appropriate in this context. Instructing the client to perform jumping jacks and count aloud (Choice D) may not address the underlying issue of disruptive behavior and may not be suitable for the current situation.
What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.
A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
This scenario describes early deceleration due to head compression, which is a benign finding in labor. Early decelerations mirror the contractions and do not require any intervention as they are considered a normal response to fetal head compression. The fetal heart rate returns to baseline at the end of the contraction. In this case, the correct action is no action at the moment. Close monitoring of the mother and baby is essential, but immediate intervention is not required. Administering O2 (Choice A) or turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not indicated for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is unnecessary for this type of deceleration.
One day postoperative, the client complains of dyspnea, and his respiratory rate (RR) is 35, slightly labored, and there are no breath sounds in the lower-right base. The nurse should suspect:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is atelectasis. The absence of breath sounds in the lower-right base is a key finding in atelectasis, which occurs when a portion of the lung collapses. The other symptoms such as dyspnea and increased respiratory rate could be present in various pulmonary conditions. Cor pulmonale is typically associated with chronic lung disease, pulmonary embolism presents with sudden onset dyspnea and chest pain, and cardiac tamponade manifests with Beck's triad of hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds.
A child with newly diagnosed leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. Which would be included in his plan of care by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to teach family and visitors handwashing techniques. Any client on chemotherapy should have good infection control measures in place, such as handwashing by all who they encounter. Placing the child in a negative pressure isolation room (Choice A) is not necessary unless specifically indicated for a certain condition. Administering prophylactic IV antibiotics (Choice B) may not be part of the standard care plan for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy. Avoiding high protein food intake (Choice C) is not directly related to infection control and may not be necessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions.
In the Emergency Department (ED), which client should the nurse see first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the Emergency Department, the priority is to assess and manage clients based on the urgency of their conditions. A client with adrenal insufficiency presenting with weakness should be seen first as this could indicate a state of shock, which requires immediate attention to stabilize the client's condition. Weakness in adrenal insufficiency can progress rapidly to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Choice A, a COPD client with a non-productive cough, may need treatment but is not immediately life-threatening. Choice B, a diabetic client with an infected sore on the foot, requires timely care to prevent complications but can generally wait for evaluation compared to the potential urgency of adrenal insufficiency. Choice D, a client with a fracture of the forearm in an air splint, is important but not as time-sensitive as a client potentially in shock.
A nurse is caring for her clients when her new admit arrives on the unit. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can arrive. Nursing assistants are not qualified to perform assessments, and the unit secretary's role does not involve client assessments. Delegating the assessment to the graduate nurse ensures that a qualified healthcare professional is evaluating the new admission, aligning with the nurse's responsibilities and providing appropriate care.
Which action by a graduate nurse would require the charge nurse to intervene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering. In healthcare settings, it is crucial to adhere to infection control measures, which include wearing appropriate attire to prevent the spread of pathogens. Walking in the hallway outside the operating room without a hair covering violates these infection control protocols, necessitating immediate intervention by the charge nurse. Choices B and C are incorrect because putting on surgical attire before entering the operating room and wearing a surgical mask into the holding area are both standard practices that promote patient safety and infection control. Choice D is also incorrect as wearing scrubs from home into the nursing station, while not ideal, is not a violation that warrants immediate intervention compared to breaching infection control protocols near sensitive areas like the operating room.
What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'homeostasis.' These ABG values fall within normal ranges, indicating a state of balance in the body's acid-base levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the ABG values provided do not point towards metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis. Instead, the values reflect a state of equilibrium where pH, PO2, PCO2, and HCO3 levels are within the normal range.
Teaching about the importance of avoiding foods high in potassium is most crucial for which client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with renal disease are prone to hyperkalemia due to impaired kidney function, making it crucial for them to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk of hypokalemia. These individuals should actually consume foods high in potassium to replenish the electrolyte lost through diuresis, ileostomy output, or metabolic alkalosis.
Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.
High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.
A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.
A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.
A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.
The anemias most often associated with pregnancy are:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Folic acid and iron deficiency anemia are the most common types of anemia associated with pregnancy. Approximately 50% of pregnant women experience this type of anemia. Iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy typically results from the increased plasma volume, rather than a decrease in iron levels. Moreover, if a woman has iron deficiency anemia before pregnancy, it often worsens during pregnancy. Folic acid deficiency is also prevalent during pregnancy due to the increased demand for this nutrient to support fetal development. Thalassemia and B12 deficiency, while types of anemia, are not as commonly associated with pregnancy compared to folic acid and iron deficiency anemia, making them incorrect choices in this context.
What is the most effective strategy to assist a client in recognizing and using personal strength?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to identify their own strengths is empowering and helps build self-awareness and self-confidence. This strategy promotes autonomy and self-efficacy, enabling the client to recognize and utilize their personal strengths effectively. Option B, promoting the client's active external thinking, is vague and not directly related to recognizing personal strengths. Option C, listening to the client and providing advice as needed, focuses more on the nurse's role rather than empowering the client to recognize their strengths independently. Option D, assisting the client in maintaining an external locus of control, goes against the goal of helping the client recognize and utilize their internal strengths.
A patient has been admitted to the hospital with an L4-5 HNP diagnosis. After 24 hours, the patient is able to ambulate with assistance and has reduced muscle spasms. Which of the following medications was the most beneficial in changing the patient's mobility status?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Flexeril. Flexeril is a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat acute muscle pain and spasms. In this scenario, the patient experiencing reduced muscle spasms and improved mobility after taking Flexeril indicates its effectiveness. Choice A, Mivacron, is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is not typically used for muscle spasms or pain relief. Choice B, Atropine, is a medication used to treat certain types of nerve agent and pesticide poisonings, not muscle spasms. Choice C, Bethanechol, is a medication that stimulates bladder contractions and is not indicated for muscle spasms or mobility improvement.
A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, 'I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Choosing surgery for weight loss is a significant decision, and acknowledging and respecting this choice is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Option D is the correct answer as it validates the client's decision and shows support. Options A, B, and C are all inappropriate as they do not address the client's feelings, lack empathy, and can be considered insensitive and unprofessional.
One drug can alter the absorption of another drug. One drug increases intestinal motility. Which effect does this have on the second drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When one drug increases intestinal motility, it accelerates the movement of the second drug through the system. Since most oral medications are absorbed in the intestine, the faster transit time decreases the absorption of the second drug. Therefore, less of the second drug is absorbed. Choice A is incorrect because the increased gut motility does affect the absorption of the second drug. Choice C is incorrect as the effect of increased intestinal motility on drug absorption can be predicted based on pharmacokinetic principles. Choice B is incorrect as increased gut motility would not increase but decrease the absorption of the second drug.
What is an appropriate intervention for the client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client presents with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus, obtaining a voided urine specimen for urinalysis is an appropriate intervention. This helps assess for any urinary tract injuries or abnormalities without further traumatizing the area. Insertion of a Foley catheter (Choice A) should be avoided as it can worsen the existing trauma. Performing an in-and-out catheter specimen (Choice B) involves unnecessary manipulation and can increase the risk of complications. Ordering a urinalysis by the physician (Choice D) may delay the assessment compared to obtaining a direct voided urine specimen.
A client with schizophrenia and his parents are meeting with the nurse. One of the young man's parents says to the nurse, 'We were stunned when we learned that our son had schizophrenia. He was no different from his older brother when they were growing up. Now he's had another relapse, and we can't understand why he stopped his medication.' Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate response is to ask the client how they can be helped in taking their medication or sharing problems to adjust the medication. This approach promotes direct communication with the client, allowing for better assessment of the situation and understanding the client's motivations and behaviors. It also encourages openness and mutual communication between the client and their family. Choice A provides important information about noncompliance as a common reason for relapse but lacks a therapeutic approach by not facilitating emotional expression. Choice B uses a threatening message and is nontherapeutic. Choice D prematurely analyzes the client's motivations without sufficient assessment and lacks a therapeutic communication style.
Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.
A nurse is instructing a patient on the order of sensations with the application of an ice water bath for a swollen right ankle. Which of the following is the correct order of sensations experienced with an ice water bath?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order of sensations experienced with an ice water bath is cold, burning, aching, and numbness, as stated by the acronym CBAN (cold, burn, ache, numbness). Option A is the correct sequence. Choice B is incorrect as it starts with burning, which typically follows the cold sensation. Choice C is incorrect as aching is usually felt after the burning sensation. Choice D is incorrect as aching usually occurs after the burning sensation.
When giving an intramuscular injection to an infant, which of the following sites is preferred?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the Vastus lateralis when giving an intramuscular injection to an infant. The Vastus lateralis muscle, located in the thigh, is the preferred site for infants as it has a larger muscle mass and is well-developed, making it suitable for injections. The Ventrogluteal region and Dorsogluteal region are not recommended for infants due to their smaller muscle mass and potential risk of damaging nearby structures. The Deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults, not infants.
During a stress test, a patient complains of severe chest pain. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to relieve this discomfort?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate medication to relieve severe ischemic chest pain during a stress test is Procardia. Procardia, a calcium channel blocker, is effective in quickly alleviating chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Aspirin, although important for antiplatelet effects, is not the best choice for immediate relief of severe chest pain. Diazoxide is a vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies, not for acute chest pain. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure, not for chest pain relief.
Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Active transport is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process involved in the sodium-potassium pump. The pump utilizes energy to move ions against their concentration gradient, maintaining cellular concentrations. Diffusion (choice B) is a passive process where substances move from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. Filtration (choice C) involves the movement of solutes based on pressure gradients. Osmosis (choice D) is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.
In a client with asthma who develops respiratory acidosis, what should the nurse expect the client's serum potassium level to be?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In respiratory acidosis, the serum potassium level is expected to be elevated. This occurs because potassium shifts from cells into the bloodstream as a compensatory mechanism to maintain acid-base balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A normal potassium level is not expected in respiratory acidosis. A low potassium level is more commonly associated with alkalosis, not acidosis. The potassium level is indeed related to pH changes in respiratory acidosis, leading to the expected elevation.
Which of the following observations is most important when assessing a client's breathing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing. It is crucial to ensure that the client is not only breathing but also breathing adequately. Choices A and D are incorrect as pulse rate and patient position are not the most critical observations when assessing a client's breathing. Pulse rate is more related to assessing circulation, and patient position is important but not as crucial as ensuring the client is breathing and breathing adequately. Choice B is partially correct as breathing pattern is important, but the most critical observation is the adequacy of breathing. Adequacy of breathing ensures that the client is receiving enough oxygen to support proper body function and is the key focus during breathing assessment.
A client asks a nurse working in a dental office what type of drug the dentist uses to provide anesthesia during the extraction of the client's wisdom teeth. The dentist uses an anesthetic gas, also known as laughing gas. This agent is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is commonly known as laughing gas and is used as an anesthetic gas for procedures like dental extractions. It produces analgesia and mild euphoria without loss of consciousness. Nitrogen is a nonmetallic element found in air, while nitric oxide is a vasodilator produced from L-arginine. Nitrogen dioxide is a poisonous gas found in smog and exhaust fumes and is not used for anesthesia.
A nurse is caring for a patient in the step-down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Increased pupil size bilaterally.' When assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure, bilateral pupil dilation is not typically associated with this condition. Instead, unilateral pupil changes, especially one pupil becoming dilated or non-reactive while the other remains normal, are indicative of increased ICP. Bradycardia, a change in level of consciousness (LOC), and vomiting are commonly seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure due to the brain's response to the rising pressure. Therefore, the presence of bilateral pupil dilation goes against the typical pattern observed in patients with increased intracranial pressure.
When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, what should be instructed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, it is crucial to discontinue the medication for a few weeks. Prolonged use of decongestant drops can lead to rebound congestion, which is relieved by stopping the medication for a period of time. Nasal congestion occurs due to various factors like infection, inflammation, or allergy, leading to swelling of the nasal cavity. Nasal decongestants work by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and shrinking of nasal mucous membranes. However, prolonged use can result in vasodilation, worsening nasal congestion. Switching to a stronger dose of the same medication is not recommended as it can exacerbate the issue. Continuing the same medication more frequently or using a combination of medications are also not advised and may lead to side effects. Educating individuals on proper decongestant use and potential risks of prolonged usage is essential, especially for those with specific health conditions.
Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.
When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.
Which factor in a client's health history increases their risk for cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Alcohol and smoking.' Both alcohol consumption and smoking are well-known risk factors for various types of cancer. They have a synergistic effect, meaning their combined impact raises the risk significantly. Family history and environment (Choice A) may play a role in certain cancers, but alcohol and smoking are more directly linked to increased cancer risk. Proximity to an electric plant and water source (Choice D) is not typically associated with an increased risk of cancer compared to alcohol and smoking.
When encountering the significant other of a patient with end-stage AIDS crying during her smoke break, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Approaching the significant other, offering tissues, and encouraging her to verbalize her feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Being left alone during the grief process isolates individuals, and they need an outlet for their feelings. By showing empathy and providing support, the nurse can help the significant other cope with her emotions. Choices A, B, and C are inappropriate because they do not offer support or encourage the expression of feelings, which are crucial in such situations.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.