Free Biology practice for Biology HESI A2 Practice Exam (HESI A2). Answer 38 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on N

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Which statement is true of enzymes?

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Correct Answer: B. They are made from proteins.

Explanation:

The correct answer is B: Enzymes are made from proteins. Enzymes are biological molecules that act as catalysts to speed up chemical reactions in living organisms. While the majority of enzymes are proteins, a few are made from RNA. The statement that enzymes are made from lipids (choice A) is incorrect. Enzymes do not form double chains of DNA (choice C) as their primary function is not related to DNA structure. Additionally, enzymes themselves do not bind with catalysts (choice D); instead, they act as catalysts to facilitate reactions.

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Why is DNA important for the metabolic activities of the cell?

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Correct Answer: D. It controls the synthesis of enzymes.

Explanation:

DNA is important for the metabolic activities of the cell because it controls the synthesis of enzymes. Enzymes are essential for catalyzing metabolic reactions in the cell. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because DNA is not directly involved in cellular mitosis, cell wall stability, or glucose absorption.

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Which is not a step in the water cycle?

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Correct Answer: C. Nitrification

Explanation:

Nitrification is a biological process in the nitrogen cycle where ammonia is converted into nitrites and then nitrates by bacteria. It is not a step in the water cycle. The water cycle involves processes like evaporation, condensation, precipitation, and transpiration that are related to the movement and transformation of water in the environment. Choices A, B, and D are all part of the water cycle: condensation is the process where water vapor turns into liquid water, transpiration is the release of water vapor by plants, and absorption refers to the process of water being taken in by soil or other materials.

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How is mitosis different from meiosis?

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Correct Answer: B. Meiosis creates cells with half the chromosomes of the parent cell.

Explanation:

Meiosis is the type of cell division that creates cells with half the number of chromosomes compared to the parent cell. This is essential for sexual reproduction as it ensures that when the sex cells (sperm and egg) combine during fertilization, the resulting offspring has the correct number of chromosomes. In contrast, mitosis results in two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Choice A is incorrect because mitosis is responsible for the division of body cells, not sex cells. Choice C is incorrect because telophase is a phase that occurs in both mitosis and meiosis. Choice D is incorrect because spermatogenesis and oogenesis involve meiosis, not mitosis.

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What are the three types of muscle tissue?

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Correct Answer: B. Smooth, skeletal, cardiac

Explanation:

The correct answer is B: Smooth, skeletal, cardiac. Smooth muscle is found in organs like the stomach and is involuntarily controlled. Skeletal muscle is found in voluntary muscles, like the bicep or quadriceps. Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart walls and works involuntarily to make the heart beat and pump blood. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the three types of muscle tissue.

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Which is not one of the raw materials needed for cellular respiration?

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Correct Answer: C. Water

Explanation:

Water is not one of the raw materials needed for cellular respiration. The essential raw materials for cellular respiration include glucose (which is broken down to produce energy), oxygen, and ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and phosphate (which are necessary for the formation of ATP, the energy currency of cells). While water is crucial for many cellular processes and makes up a significant portion of cells, it is not directly involved as a raw material in the cellular respiration process.

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What type of cells possess a cell membrane?

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Correct Answer: C. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Explanation:

Cell membranes are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. The cell membrane serves as a barrier that encloses the cell contents and regulates the entry and exit of substances in and out of the cell. It is a fundamental structure found in all types of cells, regardless of whether they are prokaryotic (lacking a nucleus) or eukaryotic (containing a nucleus). Choice A is incorrect because eukaryotic cells also possess cell membranes. Choice B is incorrect as prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, also have cell membranes. Choice D is incorrect as both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have cell membranes.

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What is the magnification of an ocular lens on a microscope?

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Correct Answer: B. 10x

Explanation:

The magnification of an ocular lens on a microscope is typically 10x, which is considered standard for most microscopes. Ocular lenses are designed to magnify the image produced by the objective lens further. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the standard magnification of an ocular lens. A magnification of 4x, 40x, or 100x would not be typical for an ocular lens in a microscope.

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How should a researcher test the hypothesis that a particular species of bird vocalizes most in the hours around dawn?

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Correct Answer: C. Observe a flock of the birds in the wild and record them in predawn and postdawn hours every day for six months.

Explanation:

Observing a flock of the birds in the wild and recording them in predawn and postdawn hours every day for six months would be the best way to test the hypothesis that a particular species of bird vocalizes most in the hours around dawn. This method allows for consistent monitoring of the birds during specific times of interest over an extended period, providing a comprehensive dataset to accurately analyze the vocalization patterns. Options A and B do not focus specifically on dawn hours, making them less suitable for testing the hypothesis. Option D introduces a comparison with other species, which is unnecessary and distracts from the main objective of studying the vocalization pattern of the particular bird species around dawn.

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Which color of light is least effective at driving photosynthesis?

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Correct Answer: B. Green

Explanation:

Green light is the least effective at driving photosynthesis because chlorophyll, the primary pigment responsible for absorbing light in plants, does not absorb green light well. Instead, chlorophyll absorbs more effectively in the blue and red regions of the light spectrum. Therefore, green light is relatively less efficient in promoting photosynthesis compared to violet, orange, and red light. Violet light, although at the shorter wavelength end of the spectrum, can still drive photosynthesis better than green light. Orange and red light are more efficiently absorbed by chlorophyll, making them more effective in driving the process of photosynthesis.

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Enzymes can _ reactions.

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Correct Answer: A. Catalyze

Explanation:

Enzymes function as catalysts that promote and accelerate chemical reactions in biological systems. They do this by lowering the activation energy required for the reactions to occur, thereby speeding up the process without being consumed in the reaction. Enzymes facilitate reactions rather than inhibiting or stopping them. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Catalyze.' 'Inhibit' and 'Stop' are incorrect because enzymes do not hinder or halt reactions but rather enhance them.

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What is the main component of blood plasma?

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Correct Answer: B. Water

Explanation:

The correct answer is B: Water. Blood plasma is composed mostly of water, which acts as a solvent for various nutrients and substances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Proteins are indeed present in blood plasma but are not the main component. Red blood cells and platelets are cellular components of blood, not the main component of blood plasma.

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Bacillus subtilis may be described as ___________.

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Correct Answer: C. rod-shaped

Explanation:

Bacillus subtilis is a rod-shaped bacterium. Its name "Bacillus" refers to its rod-like shape, which is a characteristic feature of this bacteria.

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In which phase of mitosis do new nuclear membranes form around sets of chromosomes?

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Correct Answer: C. Telophase

Explanation:

The correct answer is C, Telophase. During telophase, the final phase of mitosis, new nuclear membranes form around sets of chromosomes at the opposite poles of the cell. This process marks the completion of nuclear division in mitosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in prophase, chromosomes condense but nuclear membranes are not formed; in anaphase, chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles but no new nuclear membranes are formed; and in interphase, the cell prepares for division but nuclear membranes are not forming around sets of chromosomes.

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Which of the following is the best example of a hypothesis?

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Correct Answer: D. If a plant is exposed to red light, then it will show less growth than natural light

Explanation:

Option D is the best example of a hypothesis because it presents a clear cause-and-effect relationship that can be tested through experimentation. It follows the format of 'If [cause], then [effect]' which is characteristic of a hypothesis in scientific research. The statement is specific, testable, and does not rely on personal opinions or biases, making it a strong and valid hypothesis. Choices A, B, and C do not follow the structure of a hypothesis as they lack the cause-and-effect relationship that can be tested through experimentation. They are more like statements or opinions rather than hypotheses.

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Which part of the plant produces pollen?

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Correct Answer: A. Anther

Explanation:

The anther is the part of the flower that produces pollen. It is located at the tip of the stamen, the male reproductive organ of a flower. The anther contains pollen sacs where pollen grains are produced. The style is the part of the pistil that connects the stigma to the ovary, playing a role in pollen tube growth. The stigma is the part of the pistil that receives pollen during fertilization. The pistil is the female reproductive organ of a flower, consisting of the stigma, style, and ovary, and does not produce pollen.

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Tonicity refers to the movement of:

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Correct Answer: A. Water

Explanation:

Tonicity refers to the movement of water across a membrane in response to differences in solute concentration. In a hypertonic solution, where there is a higher concentration of solutes outside the cell, water will move out of the cell to try to reach equilibrium. In a hypotonic solution, where there is a lower concentration of solutes outside the cell, water will move into the cell to balance the concentrations. Cells and solutes themselves do not actively move in response to tonicity; it is the movement of water that helps achieve equilibrium. Therefore, the correct answer is water (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tonicity specifically refers to water movement and not the movement of solutes, cells, or none of the above.

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Which of the following is not found within a bacterial cell?

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Correct Answer: A. mitochondria

Explanation:

The correct answer is A: mitochondria. Mitochondria are not found in bacterial cells. Bacterial cells lack membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria, which are commonly found in eukaryotic cells. Choices B, C, and D are all components that can be found within a bacterial cell. Bacterial cells contain DNA as their genetic material, vesicles for various cellular functions, and ribosomes for protein synthesis. Therefore, the presence of mitochondria is the distinguishing factor that is not found in bacterial cells, making option A the correct answer.

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Where is the genetic information of a eukaryotic cell stored?

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Correct Answer: B. Nucleus

Explanation:

The correct answer is B: Nucleus. In eukaryotic cells, genetic information (DNA) is stored in the nucleus. This organelle acts as the control center of the cell, housing the DNA and regulating gene expression. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the genetic information is not stored in the mitochondria, Golgi Apparatus, or cytoplasm. The mitochondria are responsible for energy production, the Golgi Apparatus is involved in protein processing and packaging, and the cytoplasm is where various cellular activities take place, but none of these organelles store the genetic information.

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Why are bacteria and blue-green algae often classified together?

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Correct Answer: B. Both are prokaryotes.

Explanation:

Bacteria and blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) are often classified together because they are both prokaryotes. Prokaryotes are unicellular organisms that lack a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. This characteristic distinguishes them from eukaryotic organisms, which have these membrane-bound structures. Choice A is incorrect because gymnosperms are seed-producing plants with naked seeds, not bacteria or blue-green algae. Choice C is incorrect because being an autotroph (able to produce its own food) is not a reason for classifying them together. Choice D is incorrect because not all bacteria and blue-green algae are pathogens; many of them are beneficial or neutral to other organisms.

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What process involves the movement of water molecules through a selectively permeable membrane?

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Correct Answer: B. Osmosis

Explanation:

Osmosis is the process specifically involving the movement of water molecules through a selectively permeable membrane, from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. This process helps balance concentrations on both sides of the membrane. Choice A, Diffusion, refers to the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, not specific to water. Choice C, Active Transport, requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient, unlike osmosis. Choice D, Facilitated Diffusion, involves the use of transport proteins to move specific substances across membranes, not limited to water molecules.

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A scientist needs 12 mL of a solution. They have a bottle with 12L in it. Do they have enough?

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Correct Answer: B. Yes, they have more than what they need

Explanation:

1 liter has 1000 milliliters. To convert from milliliters to liters, the decimal point moves three places to the left. So, the bottle has 12000 mL of solution, which is a lot more than the required 12 mL. Therefore, the scientist has more than what they need. Choice A is incorrect as the bottle has more than the required amount. Choice C is incorrect as the bottle contains significantly more solution than needed. Choice D is incorrect as the scientist does have more than enough solution.

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Enzymes are typically _ _.

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Correct Answer: B. Proteins

Explanation:

Enzymes are typically proteins that act as biological catalysts, speeding up chemical reactions in living organisms. While most enzymes are made of proteins, a few exceptions, known as ribozymes, are made of RNA. Proteins are composed of amino acids arranged in specific sequences that give enzymes their unique shape and functionality. Choice A, 'Fats,' is incorrect as enzymes are not typically composed of fats. Choice C, 'Sugars,' is incorrect as enzymes are not typically composed of sugars. Choice D, 'Neurons,' is incorrect as neurons are a type of cell in the nervous system, not typically associated with enzymes.

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Muscles are connected to bones by ______, and bones are connected to each other by ______.

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Correct Answer: B. Tendons, ligaments

Explanation:

Muscles are connected to bones by tendons, which allow the muscle to exert force on the bone for movement. Bones are connected to each other by ligaments, which provide stability and support to the joints between bones. This relationship between muscles, tendons, bones, and ligaments is essential for proper movement and function of the musculoskeletal system. Choice A is incorrect because muscles are not directly connected to bones; tendons serve as the connection between muscles and bones. Choice D is incorrect because ligaments connect bones to each other, not muscles to bones.

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In an example of a male with hemophilia and a female carrier, what percentage of the offspring is predicted to be carriers only?

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Correct Answer: C. 50%

Explanation:

In this scenario, the male offspring will inherit the X chromosome with the hemophilia gene from the mother, as males have one X chromosome inherited from their mother. The female offspring will inherit one normal X chromosome from the father and one X chromosome with the hemophilia gene from the mother, making them carriers of the hemophilia trait. Therefore, 50% of the offspring will be carriers only. Option A (0%) is incorrect as female offspring will inherit the X chromosome with the hemophilia gene from the mother. Option B (25%) is incorrect as the female offspring will not be unaffected. Option D (100%) is incorrect as not all offspring will be carriers, only the female offspring.

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Which of the following describes how a bacterium reproduces?

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Correct Answer: C. Binary fission

Explanation:

Bacteria reproduce through a process called 'binary fission.' During binary fission, a bacterium duplicates its DNA and then divides into two identical daughter cells. This method is the primary way bacteria replicate. Choice A, 'Mitosis,' is incorrect because mitosis is a process specific to eukaryotic cells, where the nucleus divides to produce two identical nuclei. Choice B, 'Meiosis,' is incorrect as meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that produces gametes with half the chromosome number. Choice D, 'Cytokinesis,' is not the correct answer as cytokinesis is the physical process of cell division, which occurs after the genetic material has been divided in mitosis or meiosis.

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Which of the following are components of the endocrine system?

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Correct Answer: D. All of the Above

Explanation:

The endocrine system comprises a network of glands that produce and release hormones to regulate bodily functions. The pituitary gland, thyroid gland, and adrenal glands are essential components of this system. The pituitary gland secretes various hormones that control other glands and some body functions. The thyroid gland regulates metabolism, growth, and energy levels by producing thyroid hormones. The adrenal glands produce hormones involved in stress response, metabolism, and immune function. Therefore, all of the above glands are integral parts of the endocrine system, making choice D the correct answer.

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RNA is made from DNA through a process called ___________.

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Correct Answer: A. transcription

Explanation:

RNA is made from DNA through a process called transcription. During transcription, an enzyme called RNA polymerase reads the DNA template and synthesizes a complementary RNA molecule. This process is essential for gene expression and allows the information encoded in DNA to be converted into functional RNA molecules. Choice B, 'synthesis,' is incorrect as it is a general term and does not specifically describe the process of RNA formation from DNA. Choice C, 'translation,' is incorrect as it refers to the process where the mRNA is used to assemble amino acids during protein synthesis, not the conversion of DNA to RNA. Choice D, 'replication,' is incorrect as it is the process of making an identical copy of DNA, not converting DNA into RNA.

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In the scientific process, which of the following is a statement or explanation of certain events or happenings?

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Correct Answer: A. hypothesis

Explanation:

A hypothesis is a statement or explanation of certain events or phenomena based on observations and prior knowledge. It is a testable prediction that guides the scientific investigation process. By formulating a hypothesis, scientists can make predictions and design experiments to gather data and test the validity of the hypothesis. Observations (choice B) involve gathering information through the senses. Experiments (choice C) are procedures carried out to support or refute a hypothesis. Conclusions (choice D) are deductions made based on the results of experiments and observations, but they are not the initial statement or explanation of events or happenings.

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Which is true of gametes?

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Correct Answer: B. They are haploid cells

Explanation:

Gametes are sex cells (sperm and eggs) that are involved in sexual reproduction. They are haploid cells, meaning they have half the number of chromosomes (n) compared to diploid cells. This is necessary for the formation of a diploid zygote when two gametes unite during fertilization. Somatic cells are non-reproductive cells in the body, so they are not gametes. Choice A is incorrect because gametes are not diploid but haploid. Choice C is incorrect because gametes are not somatic cells.

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Which organelle is found in protists but not in monerans?

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Correct Answer: A. Golgi apparatus

Explanation:

The Golgi apparatus is the correct answer. The Golgi apparatus is a cellular organelle responsible for processing and packaging proteins before they are transported to their final destination. Protists, being eukaryotic organisms, have membrane-bound organelles including the Golgi apparatus, which are absent in monerans. Monerans are prokaryotic organisms that lack membrane-bound structures such as the Golgi apparatus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as chromosomes, cytoplasm, and cell membranes are present in both protists and monerans.

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What is the process of cell division that results in two daughter cells with identical genetic material?

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Correct Answer: A. Mitosis

Explanation:

The correct answer is A, Mitosis. Mitosis is the process of cell division in which a cell divides and produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. Choice B, Meiosis, is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the number of chromosomes. Choice C, Binary Fission, is a form of asexual reproduction in single-celled organisms. Choice D, Budding, is a form of asexual reproduction where a new organism develops from an outgrowth or bud on the parent.

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Select the option that best shows complementary base pairing in DNA:

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Correct Answer: D. A and T

Explanation:

The correct answer is D. A purine (A) must pair with a pyrimidine (T) in DNA. This eliminates options A and C as they do not follow the rule of complementary base pairing. Adenine (A) always pairs with thymine (T) due to their specific shape and bonding properties in DNA structure. Choice B is incorrect because adenine does not pair with cytosine in DNA.

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What are saturated fats saturated with?

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Correct Answer: A. Hydrogen atoms

Explanation:

Saturated fats are saturated with hydrogen atoms. This means that each carbon atom in the fatty acid chains forming saturated fats is bonded to as many hydrogen atoms as possible. This saturation results in the fatty acid chains being straight and closely packed together, making saturated fats solid at room temperature. Choice B (Carbon atoms), C (Oxygen atoms), and D (Nitrogen atoms) are incorrect because saturated fats are specifically saturated with hydrogen atoms, not carbon, oxygen, or nitrogen atoms.

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Why do cells need to use exocytosis?

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Correct Answer: C. To remove waste products

Explanation:

Cells need to use exocytosis to remove waste products from the cell. Exocytosis is a process where cells release molecules or substances outside the cell by fusing vesicles with the cell membrane. This process is crucial for maintaining cellular homeostasis by efficiently eliminating waste materials. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because exocytosis is specifically involved in the expulsion of molecules, not for obtaining energy, defending against invaders, or cell division.

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During protein synthesis, what process uses an RNA strand to produce a complementary strand of DNA?

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Correct Answer: A. Transcription

Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Transcription.' During transcription, an RNA strand is used to produce a complementary strand of DNA. This process is essential for converting the genetic information stored in DNA into RNA. Choice B, 'Translation,' is incorrect as it involves the synthesis of proteins from mRNA. Choice C, 'Transfer synthesis,' is not a recognized term in molecular biology. Choice D, 'Codon synthesis,' is also incorrect as it does not refer to the process of using an RNA strand to produce a complementary DNA strand.

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Which cellular structure is found in animal cells but not in plant cells?

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Correct Answer: A. Centriole

Explanation:

The correct answer is A, Centriole. Centrioles are found in animal cells but not in plant cells. They play a crucial role in organizing microtubules during cell division, aiding in the formation of the mitotic spindle. Plant cells lack centrioles; instead, they utilize microtubule organizing centers to perform similar functions during cell division. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because cytoplasm is a part of both animal and plant cells, vacuoles are found in plant cells and some animal cells, and the Golgi apparatus is present in both types of cells.

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A cell is in a solution in which the concentration of solutes is higher inside the cell than outside the cell. What would you expect to happen to the cell?

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Correct Answer: A. It will swell and possibly burst.

Explanation:

When a cell is in a solution where the concentration of solutes is higher inside the cell than outside, it is in a hypertonic environment. In this situation, water will move into the cell in an attempt to equalize the concentration of solutes on both sides of the cell membrane through the process of osmosis. As a result, the cell will swell as it takes in more water, potentially leading to bursting or cell lysis. Choice B is incorrect because a cell in a hypertonic solution will not shrivel and shrink due to water moving into the cell. Choice C is incorrect because the cell will not maintain its current size; it will swell. Choice D is incorrect because growing a supportive cell wall is not the immediate response to being in a hypertonic environment.

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