NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?
- A. The client is pregnant
- B. The client has hypertension
- C. The client is in renal failure
- D. The client has pancreatitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.
2. While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about the expected developmental changes for this age. Which statement by the mother shows that she understands the child's developmental needs?
- A. "I want to protect my child from any falls."?
- B. "I will set limits on exploring the house."?
- C. "I understand the need to use those new skills."?
- D. "I intend to keep control over our child."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is: "I understand the need to use those new skills."? This response indicates that the mother recognizes the importance of allowing the toddler to practice and develop new skills, supporting autonomy and exploration. Setting limits, protecting from falls, and intending to keep control go against the toddler's developmental needs. Toddlers at this stage require opportunities to explore, practice new skills, and gain independence to foster healthy development.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Contact the physician immediately
- B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
- C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
- D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.
4. Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?
- A. A 36-year-old male with a spinal injury
- B. An 86-year-old female with significantly altered mental status
- C. A 58-year-old female with near-syncope
- D. A 41-year-old male with acute deep vein thrombosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.
5. Which of the following screening tools have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening for intimate partner violence?
- A. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, and Scream (HITS)
- B. Humiliation, Afraid, Rape, and Kick (HARK)
- C. Slapped, Threatened, and Thrown (STaT)
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All of the above screening tools, including HITS, HARK, and STaT, have been found to have high diagnostic accuracy for screening intimate partner violence, as per the National Preventive Services Task Force. These tools are effective in identifying current or recent intimate partner violence. While the Partner Violence screen may have some predictive value for future intimate partner violence, the question specifically focuses on screening tools with high diagnostic accuracy, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are specific validated screening tools for intimate partner violence, each with its own set of questions that have been shown to be effective in identifying individuals experiencing intimate partner violence. Therefore, 'All of the above' is the most comprehensive and accurate choice for this question.
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