Nursing Elites

1. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?

• A. The client is pregnant
• B. The client has hypertension
• C. The client is in renal failure
• D. The client has pancreatitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.

2. A victim of a gunshot wound to the abdomen has been admitted to the hospital, accompanied by a police officer. When questioned, the officer states that the patient is a suspect in a homicide, which occurred as part of the same incident. A small child was killed as the result of a stray bullet. The patient is combative, yells that he's in pain and demands medication. What is your most appropriate response?

• A. Tell him you'll take care of him after your other patients
• B. Reinforce restraints
• C. Perform a pain assessment and administer pain medication
• D. Ask the officer for more details of the incident

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate and caring response is to perform a pain assessment and administer the pain medication that has been ordered. Regardless of personal feelings about any given situation, the nurse's responsibility is to provide unbiased, appropriate, and supportive care, as stated in the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics. Choice A is not appropriate as it disregards the patient's immediate need for pain relief. Choice B may escalate the situation and is not the priority in this case. Choice D is not the immediate action needed to address the patient's pain and distress.

3. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?

• A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
• B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
• C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.

4. Which example best describes the concept of beneficence?

• A. A nurse provides pain medication for a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain
• B. A client has an advanced directive in place stating that he does not want intubation if he needs CPR
• C. At the request of the client, a nurse does not inform the family about his cancer diagnosis
• D. A nurse withholds narcotic medication for a client in pain, knowing that he is currently disoriented

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beneficence is the ethical principle of doing good and acting in the best interest of the client. Providing pain relief to a client in the recovery room who is experiencing pain aligns with beneficence as it promotes the client's well-being and comfort. Choice B is related to autonomy, where the client's wishes regarding treatment are respected. Choice C involves confidentiality and the client's right to privacy. Choice D represents nonmaleficence, as withholding pain medication from a client in pain could cause harm and goes against the principle of doing no harm.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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