NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?
- A. The client is pregnant
- B. The client has hypertension
- C. The client is in renal failure
- D. The client has pancreatitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.
2. A nurse is caring for an 83-year-old man who has had swallowing difficulties. All of the following interventions are appropriate for this client EXCEPT:
- A. Keep the client in an upright position at all times
- B. Auscultate lung sounds every shift and after feedings
- C. Maintain suction equipment at the client's bedside
- D. Instruct the client about how to perform swallowing exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a client with swallowing difficulties, it is crucial to prevent aspiration of food into the lungs. Appropriate interventions include auscultating lung sounds every shift and after feedings to assess for any changes in breathing patterns, maintaining suction equipment at the client's bedside in case of difficulties, and providing instruction on swallowing exercises. Keeping the client in an upright position at all times is not necessary and may not always be feasible or comfortable for the client. This rigid requirement is not part of the standard care protocol for managing swallowing difficulties.
3. What preparation is necessary for a colposcopy procedure?
- A. NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedure.
- B. D/C all hypertension medications for two days prior to the procedure.
- C. Take three Dulcolax tablets and two containers of Miralax the day before to clear out the lower GI system.
- D. None of the above prep is necessary for this type of procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A colposcopy procedure is performed to examine the vagina and cervix. The only preparation required is washing the external genitals with soap and water on the morning of the procedure. Choices A, B, and C suggest unnecessary preparations that are not relevant to a colposcopy. NPO for 8-12 hours, discontinuing hypertension medications, and using laxatives are not part of the standard preparation for a colposcopy.
4. A nursing unit is implementing a new electronic charting program for the nursing staff to use. Which of the following best describes a disadvantage of using electronic charting?
- A. The information is more likely to be lost or used inappropriately.
- B. Any provider in the unit can have access to the client's medical records.
- C. The system diminishes communication between nurses and providers.
- D. The program may be confusing and difficult to implement.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A significant disadvantage of implementing a new electronic charting program is the potential for complexity and difficulty in implementation. Introducing a new system requires time and education for staff to adapt and use it appropriately. Users may experience confusion as they learn to navigate the new charting techniques, which can impact workflow efficiency and accuracy. Option A is incorrect because electronic charting systems are designed to enhance data security and integrity, reducing the risk of information being lost or misused. Option B is incorrect as access control mechanisms can restrict who can view specific patient records. Option C is incorrect as electronic charting systems often facilitate communication between healthcare providers by providing real-time access to patient information.
5. A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?
- A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Constipation
- D. A prominent U wave on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.
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