mrs o is seen for follow up after an episode of acute pancreatitis her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 ul which of the fo
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NCLEX-RN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions

1. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.

2. Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.

3. Which of the following conditions increases a client's risk of aspiration of stomach contents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client in restraints is at an increased risk of aspiration of stomach contents. When a client is restrained, they may be unable to effectively move or turn their body if they begin to vomit, which can lead to aspiration. This lack of mobility can hinder their ability to protect their airway. On the other hand, a scaphoid abdomen, which is sunken or hollowed, is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Additionally, lying prone, facing downward, does not necessarily increase the risk of aspiration, as aspiration is more likely when lying supine (facing upward). Therefore, the correct answer is that a client is in restraints.

4. Which risk factor places patients and residents at the greatest risk for falls?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Old age is a significant risk factor for falls as elderly individuals are more prone to falls due to factors like decreased balance, muscle strength, and vision. Middle age is less associated with falls compared to old age. Pneumonia and COPD are medical conditions that are not direct risk factors for falls, unlike aging which significantly increases the risk of falls.

5. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

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