mrs o is seen for follow up after an episode of acute pancreatitis her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 ul which of the fo
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions

1. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.

2. Teresa is an 84-year-old with stage 4 ovarian cancer who has been admitted for a bowel obstruction. She recently stated that she has decided that she doesn't want any further aggressive care and is requesting to be placed under hospice care. Her husband and daughter are supportive of her decision. She spoke with her oncologist about it, and he stated that he did not agree and wrote orders on her chart for chemotherapy. What would be the best first response to this situation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient has the right to refuse any treatment, and the doctor should be notified that the orders on the chart cannot be performed, with appropriate documentation. In this situation, the best first response is to notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy. This step ensures that the patient's wishes are respected and that inappropriate treatments are not administered. It also opens up a dialogue with the oncologist, giving him the opportunity to understand the patient's perspective and potentially support her decision. Providing hospice information is a good follow-up step after addressing the immediate issue of refusing chemotherapy, as it allows the patient to initiate her own hospice evaluation if desired. Giving the patient a list of other oncologists or telling the family to report the doctor to the state quality board are not appropriate initial responses and may not align with the patient's wishes or autonomy.

3. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

4. What would a healthcare professional expect to observe while assessing the growth of children during their school-age years?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During school-age years, children typically gain about 5.5 pounds per year and increase in height by about 2 inches annually. This steady growth pattern is expected between ages 2 to 10 years. Choice A is incorrect as children at this stage are expected to gain weight and grow in height. Choice B is incorrect as there should be noticeable changes in body appearance due to growth. Choice C is incorrect as a progressive height increase of 4 inches each year is not typical during the school-age years.

5. Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.

Similar Questions

A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?
The client is being educated about depression by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
A writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially, the nurse should plan this for a manic client:
When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, what should the nurse emphasize?
Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses