NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?
- A. The client is pregnant
- B. The client has hypertension
- C. The client is in renal failure
- D. The client has pancreatitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.
2. When a mother is inquiring about her child's ability to potty train, what is the most critical aspect of toilet training?
- A. The age of the child
- B. The child's ability to understand instructions
- C. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child
- D. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most critical aspect of toilet training is the overall mental and physical abilities of the child. While age can play a role, it is not the sole determining factor. Understanding instructions is important but may not be the most critical aspect. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement can be helpful, but without considering the child's abilities, it may not lead to successful potty training.
3. Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?
- A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
- B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
- C. Positive statements precede negative statements
- D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.
4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- C. Biot's respirations
- D. Cluster breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.
5. A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Regular developmental screening is important to avoid secondary developmental delays.
- B. Cerebral palsy is caused by injury to the upper motor neurons and results in motor dysfunction, as well as possible ocular and speech difficulties.
- C. Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.
- D. Parent support groups are helpful for sharing strategies and managing health care issues.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.' This statement is incorrect as delayed developmental milestones in a child with cerebral palsy require interventions and constant follow-ups. Developmental monitoring is essential to track a child's growth and development over time. If any concerns are raised during monitoring, a developmental screening test should be conducted promptly to address any developmental delays or issues. Regular interventions, therapies, and support are crucial to optimize the child's development and well-being. Therefore, it is important for parents to be aware that additional interventions may be necessary to support their child's development.
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