NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. The client is still unable to sleep despite following the progressive muscle relaxation technique routine taught by the nurse. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Instruct the client to add regular exercise to their daily routine.
- B. Determine if the client has been keeping a sleep diary.
- C. Encourage the client to continue the routine until sleep is achieved.
- D. Ask the client to describe the routine they are currently following.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's initial step should be to assess the client's adherence to the original instructions. By asking the client to describe the routine they are following, the nurse gains more specific information than relying solely on a sleep diary. This information will help the nurse identify any deviations or areas needing adjustment in the technique. Encouraging the client to persist with an unsuccessful routine without evaluation is not beneficial. Adding regular exercise, although important for overall sleep health, should come after ensuring the correct execution of the relaxation technique.
2. When observing an infant lying quietly in the bassinet with eyes open wide, what action should the nurse take in response to the infant's behavior?
- A. Brightening the lights in the room
- B. Encouraging the mother to talk to her baby
- C. Wrapping and then turning the infant to the side
- D. Beginning physical and behavioral assessments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When an infant is lying quietly in a bassinet with eyes open wide, it indicates a quiet, alert state. This state is optimal for infant stimulation and interaction. Bright lights can be disturbing to newborns and may disrupt the mother-infant interaction. Wrapping and turning the infant to the side is typically done for a sleeping infant. While physical and behavioral assessments are important, in this scenario, the priority is to encourage mother-infant bonding and communication, as it is a valuable opportunity for interaction and stimulation.
3. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
4. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to walk to the bathroom and do not leave the client alone.
- B. Request that the UAP assist the client onto a bedpan.
- C. Ask if the client needs to have a bowel movement or void.
- D. Assess the client's bladder to determine if the client needs to urinate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.
5. A client who is at 28 weeks' gestation and in active labor is crying. She says, 'I just know that this baby is going to die. What's the use of doing all this to save it?' Which explanation would interpret the client's statements?
- A. She is depressed and needs gentle, positive support during labor.
- B. She is experiencing anticipatory grief and withdrawing from bonding.
- C. She is in need of emotional support to help her cope with the impending birth.
- D. She is struggling to cope with the birth by using the word 'it.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's statement indicates anticipatory grief, where she is preparing for a potential loss. This grief is not necessarily about the literal death of the baby but about the loss of the anticipated healthy full-term baby. The client may not be ready to bond with the reality of a preterm baby. Providing gentle, positive support is essential to help her cope with her feelings, as firm support may come across as dismissive. Sedation is not appropriate as it could hinder the client's emotional processing. Allowing the client to express her emotions and work through anticipatory grieving is crucial. The use of the word 'it' reflects the client's emotional struggle and is not the primary issue at hand.
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