Free Physiological Integrity practice for NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions (NCLEX RN). Answer 96 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and p
A patient scheduled for cataract surgery asks the nurse why they developed cataracts and how to prevent it in the future. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts.' This response is the best choice as it covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because while age is a significant factor in cataract development, it is not the only one. Choice B is incorrect as UV light exposure is a risk factor for cataracts but not the most comprehensive response. Choice D is incorrect as there are preventive measures individuals can take to reduce their risk of developing cataracts, such as protecting their eyes from UV light and managing other risk factors.
After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, what client response should the nurse expect to observe?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, the nurse should observe the passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools. This indicates a successful reduction of the telescoped bowel segment. Abdominal distension and currant jelly-like stools are clinical manifestations of intussusception, not expected outcomes following hydrostatic reduction. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting suggests an unresolved gastrointestinal issue, not a successful reduction of intussusception.
The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a child of this age, this is adequate output, yet does not suggest overload. Disruption of sodium-ATPase activity presumably causes an intracellular sodium shift which contributes to hypovolemia and cellular edema. Heat injury also initiates the release of inflammatory and vasoactive mediators. These mediators are responsible for local vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilation, and increased transcapillary permeability. Increase in transcapillary permeability results in a rapid transfer of water, inorganic solutes, and plasma proteins between the intravascular and interstitial spaces.
A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition. Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.
A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.
Which of the following statements made by a client during an individual therapy session would the nurse most identify as reflecting schizoaffective disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.'' Schizoaffective disorder combines the symptoms of bipolar disorder (mania and depression) with those of schizophrenia (delusions and disturbed thought processes). Racing thoughts are a characteristic symptom of a manic episode, while beliefs in conspiracies indicate paranoia, which are common in schizoaffective disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically align with the symptoms of schizoaffective disorder. Choice A suggests self-harm, which may be seen in various mental health conditions; choice B reflects existential questioning or depression; and choice D describes hallucinations, which are more characteristic of schizophrenia rather than schizoaffective disorder.
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.
A nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency room for an ischemic stroke with marked functional deficits. The physician is considering the use of fibrinolytic therapy with TPA (tissue plasminogen activator). Which history-gathering question would not be important for the nurse to ask?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?' This question is not relevant in the context of considering fibrinolytic therapy with TPA for an ischemic stroke. Blood transfusions within the previous year do not directly impact the decision to use TPA in the treatment of an acute ischemic stroke. The focus should be on factors such as the time of symptom onset, current medications like blood thinners, and recent history of strokes or head trauma, as these are more directly related to the decision-making process for administering TPA in this emergency situation.
A 7-year-old child is seen in a clinic, and the pediatrician documents a diagnosis of nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis. What information should the nurse provide to the parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is common in children and is characterized by a child who has never been dry at night for extended periods. Most children eventually outgrow bedwetting without therapeutic intervention. This condition is due to the child being unable to sense a full bladder and not awakening to void, often related to delayed maturation of the central nervous system. It is important for parents to understand that nighttime (nocturnal) enuresis is not caused by a psychiatric problem, does not typically require surgical intervention, and usually resolves on its own over time.
A patient is being discharged from the med-surgical unit. The patient has a history of gastritis. The nurse questions the patient on their usual routine at home. Which of these statements would alert the nurse that additional teaching is required?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, 'I avoid NSAIDs. I only take a daily aspirin for my heart health.' Aspirin is classified as an NSAID and can exacerbate existing stomach problems, such as gastritis. Therefore, patients with gastritis should avoid aspirin just like any other NSAID. Choice B, 'I always avoid eating hot and spicy foods,' is a good practice for a patient with gastritis. Choice C, 'I will continue taking my antacids with or immediately after meals,' indicates understanding of the correct timing for antacid use. Choice D, 'I will only drink coffee once a week, if even that often,' shows a suitable limitation of coffee intake, which is beneficial for patients with gastritis.
A healthcare professional is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to meningitis in humans?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Cl. difficile. Clostridium difficile (C. diff) is not typically associated with meningitis in humans. This bacterium is known to cause severe diarrhea, usually as a result of antibiotic treatment. S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and N. meningitidis are all known to be causative agents of meningitis in humans. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis, especially in adults. H. influenzae, particularly type b (Hib), used to be a leading cause of meningitis in children before the introduction of the Hib vaccine. N. meningitidis is another significant pathogen responsible for causing meningitis, especially in young adults and adolescents.
A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurse's most appropriate action to promote airway clearance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the patient to splint the chest when coughing is the most appropriate action to promote airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia, rhonchi, and thick sputum. Splinting the chest helps reduce pain during coughing and increases the effectiveness of clearing secretions. Teaching the patient about the need for fluid intake is important as it helps liquefy secretions, aiding in easier clearance. Encouraging the patient to wear a nasal oxygen cannula may improve gas exchange but does not directly promote airway clearance. Instructing the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique is beneficial for improving gas exchange in patients with COPD but does not directly aid in airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia and thick sputum.
The parents of a child with a hernia are instructed by the nurse on measures to reduce the hernia. Which statement indicates the parents understand the care for their child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is providing comfort measures to reduce any crying periods by the child. This can include offering a warm bath, avoiding upright positioning, and using other comfort measures to reduce crying, which can help reduce a hernia. Encouraging coughing or physical activity can increase strain on the hernia. Giving a Fleet enema daily for constipation is not recommended as it can also increase strain on the hernia.
A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When initiating treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone), patient education should focus on teaching the patient how to draw up and administer injections of the medication. Copaxone is administered via self-injection, hence understanding the correct technique is crucial for successful treatment. Recommendations regarding fluid intake or the need to avoid driving heavy machinery are not directly related to glatiramer acetate therapy. Additionally, while discussing contraceptive methods may be important, the use of oral contraceptives does not specifically contraindicate the use of glatiramer acetate.
During an admission assessment on a 2-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome, the nurse notes that which characteristic is most commonly associated with this syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nephrotic syndrome in children is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema. The most common manifestation is generalized edema due to protein loss in the urine, leading to decreased plasma oncotic pressure. This results in fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Hypertension is not a typical feature of nephrotic syndrome in children. Increased urinary output is not a common finding; instead, children with nephrotic syndrome often have decreased urine output due to decreased renal perfusion. The presence of frank, bright red blood in the urine is not a typical characteristic of nephrotic syndrome but may indicate a different renal condition such as glomerulonephritis.
Which patient poses the least infection risk to an immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient with a healing leg wound poses the least infection risk to an immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. Chronic pancreatitis can lead to complications such as infections that can pose a risk to immunosuppressed individuals. Patients infected with respiratory viruses or urinary tract infections are actively infectious, which can put immunosuppressed patients at a higher risk of acquiring infections. Therefore, the patient with a healing leg wound is the least likely to pose an immediate infection risk.
A patient is deciding whether they should take the live influenza vaccine (nasal spray) or the inactivated influenza vaccine (shot). The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would NOT contraindicate the nasal (live vaccine) route of administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that the patient has young children. Having young children is not a contraindication for the live influenza vaccine unless the children are immunocompromised, which is not mentioned. Choice A, the patient taking long-term corticosteroids, is a contraindication for the live vaccine due to potential immunosuppression. Choice B, the patient not feeling well today, is a general precaution for vaccination and not a contraindication specific to the live influenza vaccine. Choice C, the patient being 55 years old, is not a contraindication for the live vaccine unless there are other specific medical conditions present.
A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.
After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.
When teaching the client with tuberculosis about follow-up home care, the nurse should emphasize that a laboratory appointment for which of the following lab tests is critical?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should emphasize the importance of monitoring liver function tests in clients taking INH due to the risk of hepatocellular injury and hepatitis associated with this medication. Regular assessment of liver enzymes can help detect liver damage early. Monitoring kidney function, blood sugar levels, or cardiac enzymes is not specifically required for clients taking INH and tuberculosis treatment.
After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, what is a priority nursing consideration for a patient in the day surgery center?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, the priority nursing consideration is to not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake to the patient. Endoscopies involve passing a tube through the mouth into the esophagus or upper GI. Anesthesia is often given to inactivate the gag reflex, making the patient vulnerable to aspiration. Raising the siderails of the patient's bed is important for safety but not the immediate priority. Checking the patient's temperature may be important but is not the priority immediately after the procedure. Teaching the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS is important for post-procedure care but is not the priority immediately after the endoscopic procedure.
The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.
A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.
A patient experiences a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. The emergency department nurse would be most concerned if which finding is observed during the initial assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Paradoxic chest movement is the most concerning finding as it indicates a potential flail chest, which can lead to severe compromise in gas exchange and rapid hypoxemia. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress. Complaint of chest wall pain, a slightly elevated heart rate, and a large bruised area on the chest are important assessment findings but may not immediately threaten gas exchange or respiratory function. Therefore, identifying paradoxic chest movement is critical for prompt intervention and management.
A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.
The nursing care plan for a toddler diagnosed with Kawasaki Disease (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome) should be based on the high risk for development of which problem?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is chronic vessel plaque formation. Kawasaki Disease affects small and medium-sized blood vessels, leading to progressive inflammation and potential damage to the walls of medium-sized muscular arteries, which can result in coronary artery aneurysms. While other complications such as pulmonary embolism and occlusions at vessel bifurcations can occur in different conditions, for Kawasaki Disease, the primary concern is the development of chronic vessel plaque formation.
The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.
A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis in a clinic. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Gastritis involves inflammation of the stomach lining, and medications like Naproxen can exacerbate this condition. Calcium carbonate is an antacid that can help neutralize stomach acid and may actually provide relief for gastritis symptoms. Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of gastritis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions like edema and hypertension, not directly contraindicated in gastritis.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU who has had a spinal cord injury. She observes that his last blood pressure was 100/55, and his pulse is 48. These have both trended downwards from the baseline. What should the nurse expect to be the next course of action ordered by the physician?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient is entering neurogenic shock due to the spinal cord injury, leading to hypotension and bradycardia. Administering Normal Saline is essential to replace fluid volume, which can help in treating the hypotension and bradycardia symptomatically. This intervention aims to stabilize the patient's cardiovascular status. Assessing for decreased level of consciousness (Choice A) may be important but addressing the hemodynamic instability takes precedence. Inserting an NG Tube (Choice C) and connecting and reading an EKG (Choice D) are not the immediate actions required for the presenting symptoms of hypotension and bradycardia.
The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.
A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.
The nurse is collecting data on a child recently diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which question to the mother should elicit data associated with the cause of this disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?' Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection is a known cause of glomerulonephritis. In this condition, the child typically becomes ill with streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract, and then after 1 to 2 weeks, symptoms of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis can develop. This question aims to gather crucial information related to a potential trigger for glomerulonephritis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not pertain to a common cause or associated symptom of glomerulonephritis.
Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.
The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.
The patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the patient indicates effective teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, 'I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day.' After sustaining rib fractures, it is crucial to prevent complications like atelectasis and pneumonia by practicing deep breathing and coughing. Using the incentive spirometer helps in maintaining lung expansion and preventing respiratory issues. Buying a rib binder could restrict chest expansion and hinder deep breathing efforts, increasing the risk of atelectasis. Taking shallow breaths may not effectively expand the lungs, leading to potential respiratory complications. Relying solely on pain medication at bedtime may not adequately address the need for lung expansion and prevention of respiratory complications during the day.
A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.
What is the cause of meningitis that is fatal in half of the infected patients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bacterial meningitis is caused by bacterial pathogens such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria commonly lead to acute onset meningitis, presenting with symptoms like fever, stiff neck, and altered consciousness. The statement that bacterial meningitis is fatal in about 50% of cases is accurate, making it a serious and life-threatening condition. Viruses can also cause meningitis, but they are not typically associated with the high fatality rate seen in bacterial meningitis. Fungal meningitis is less common and usually affects individuals with weakened immune systems. Noninfectious agents do not cause meningitis.
A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.
Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The correct answer demonstrates problem-oriented charting by following this structure. Choice A, C, and D do not follow the problem-oriented charting format and instead offer examples of different documentation styles such as PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation, respectively. Therefore, choice B is the best example of problem-oriented charting among the options provided.
A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.
An emergency department nurse is performing an assessment on a child with a suspected diagnosis of intussusception. Which assessment question for the parents will elicit the most specific data related to this disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is asking the parents to describe the type of pain the child is experiencing because a report of severe colicky abdominal pain in a healthy, thriving child between 3 and 17 months of age is the classic presentation of intussusception. Typical behavior includes screaming and drawing the knees up to the chest. This specific question helps in identifying the key symptom of intussusception. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of a health history but are not specific to the diagnosis of intussusception. Food allergies, bowel movements, and recent food intake are relevant for a comprehensive assessment but do not directly relate to the specific symptoms of intussusception.
A home health nurse is at the home of a client with diabetes and arthritis. The client has difficulty drawing up insulin. It would be most appropriate for the nurse to refer the client to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An occupational therapist from the community center would be the most appropriate referral for this client. Occupational therapists specialize in helping individuals improve fine motor skills, which are essential for tasks like drawing up insulin injections. A social worker typically focuses on psychosocial aspects, a physical therapist on physical mobility, and another client with diabetes would not have the professional expertise to address the client's specific needs related to insulin preparation.
The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.
What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.
A fragile 87-year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over the last two weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A CT scan is most likely to be performed in this scenario. A CT scan would be done to further investigate the cause of the left hemiparesis. Noncontrast CT scanning is commonly used in the acute evaluation of patients with suspected acute stroke to assess for ischemic changes or hemorrhage in the brain. While a CBC may provide information on blood cell counts and general health status, it is not the primary test for evaluating hemiparesis. An ECG is used to assess heart function and rhythm, which is not the main concern in this case. Thyroid function tests evaluate thyroid hormone levels and are not typically the initial tests for evaluating hemiparesis and confusion.
A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg.' Both digoxin and metoprolol decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol specifically affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure need to be within normal range (HR 60-100 bpm; systolic BP above 100 mm Hg) to safely administer both medications. A blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which could be exacerbated by metoprolol, necessitating immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks related to the administration of these medications.
The nurse is caring for a 2-year-old who is being treated with chelation therapy, calcium disodium edetate, for lead poisoning. The nurse should be alert for which of the following side effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is nephrotoxicity. Calcium disodium edetate, used in chelation therapy for lead poisoning, can lead to kidney toxicity. This is an important side effect to monitor in patients undergoing this treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Neurotoxicity, hepatomegaly, and ototoxicity are not typically associated with calcium disodium edetate therapy for lead poisoning.
Mr. B is recovering from a surgical procedure that was performed four days ago. The nurse's assessment finds this client coughing up rust-colored sputum; his respiratory rate is 28/minute with expiratory grunting, and his lung sounds have coarse crackles on auscultation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client's presentation of coughing up rust-colored sputum, increased respiratory rate, expiratory grunting, and coarse crackles on lung auscultation suggests the development of pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by lung tissue inflammation or infection, often caused by various organisms. Symptoms may include productive cough, dyspnea, and abnormal breath sounds. Tuberculosis (Choice A) typically presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats and is less likely in this acute post-operative setting. Pulmonary edema (Choice B) is characterized by pink, frothy sputum, crackles throughout the lungs, and typically occurs in the context of heart failure. Histoplasmosis (Choice D) is a fungal infection that usually presents with flu-like symptoms and is less likely to manifest with the specific respiratory findings described in this case.
While working with an obese adolescent, it is important for the nurse to recognize that obesity in adolescents is most often associated with what other behavior?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When addressing obesity in adolescents, it is crucial to consider that poor body image is a common behavior associated with obesity. As adolescents gain weight, they may experience a decrease in self-esteem and a negative perception of their body. This can contribute to a cycle of unhealthy behaviors and impact their overall well-being. The other choices are less commonly associated with obesity in adolescents. Sexual promiscuity may be influenced by various factors unrelated to obesity, dropping out of school is more often linked to academic challenges or social issues, and drug experimentation can stem from a range of influences but is not directly correlated with obesity.
When assessing a child admitted to the hospital with pyloric stenosis, which symptom would the nurse likely find when asking the parent about the child's symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In pyloric stenosis, hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus causes narrowing of the pyloric canal between the stomach and the duodenum. The hallmark symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which is the forceful expulsion of stomach contents. Other common symptoms include irritability, hunger and crying, constipation, and signs of dehydration. Watery diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of pyloric stenosis. Increased urine output (Choice C) is not directly associated with this condition. Vomiting large amounts of bile (Choice D) is not a characteristic symptom of pyloric stenosis; instead, the vomitus in pyloric stenosis is non-bilious.
A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is performed during a cardiac catheterization to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery is typically done through procedures like aorto-coronary bypass graft (ACBG) rather than PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator (AICD) is a different procedure used for managing cardiac arrhythmias. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart refers to procedures like echocardiography or cardiac MRI, not PTCA.
A client in end-stage renal disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about potential complications associated with this procedure. All of the following are complications associated with peritoneal dialysis EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Peritoneal dialysis poses risks of various complications, including abdominal hernia, anorexia, peritonitis, and other issues. However, hypotriglyceridemia is not a common complication associated with peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should focus on educating the client about the risks of developing peritonitis, abdominal hernias, anorexia, low back pain, and abdominal bleeding. Monitoring triglyceride levels is essential for managing lipid disorders but is not directly linked to peritoneal dialysis complications.
The nurse is creating a plan of care for a 10-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, promoting bed rest is a priority to reduce stress on the kidneys and promote recovery. As the condition improves, activity can be gradually increased. Restricting oral fluids is not recommended as maintaining adequate hydration is crucial. Allowing the child to play quietly can be beneficial but is not the priority over rest during the acute phase. Encouraging visits from friends may disrupt the rest needed for recovery, so visitors should be limited.
Which factors will the nurse consider when calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia? (Select one that does not apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation.' When calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia, the factors considered include mental status (confusion), BUN (elevated), blood pressure (decreased), respiratory rate (increased), and age (65 and older). Oxygen saturation is not used in the CURB-65 scoring system. While blood pressure, respiratory rate, and age are factors that are used in the calculation of the CURB-65 score, oxygen saturation is not part of the scoring criteria. Therefore, oxygen saturation is the factor that does not apply when calculating the CURB-65 score.
A patient diagnosed with epilepsy is receiving discharge education from a nurse. Which of the following teachings should be emphasized the most?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most critical teaching that the nurse should stress to a patient with epilepsy is to continue taking anticonvulsants even if seizures have stopped. Suddenly stopping antiepileptic drugs can lead to seizures and an increased risk of status epilepticus, a life-threatening condition. Choice A, advising to avoid alcohol and drugs, is important but not as crucial as maintaining anticonvulsant therapy. Choice B, emphasizing follow-up appointments, is essential but ensuring medication compliance is more critical to prevent seizure recurrence. Choice D, wearing a medical alert bracelet, is important for emergency identification but does not directly impact the patient's immediate safety like medication adherence does.
A client is in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) shivering despite being covered with several layers of blankets. What is the nurse's next action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the post-anesthesia care unit, clients may experience shivering or chills due to a drop in body temperature after surgery. Meperidine (Demerol) can be prescribed to alleviate shivering in cold clients. The prone position (lying face down) and deep breathing exercises are not interventions specifically indicated for addressing shivering due to low body temperature. Therefore, administering meperidine as ordered is the most appropriate action to manage the client's shivering in this scenario.
The nurse administers prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure. Which assessment would best evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To evaluate the effectiveness of therapies for cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure, observing for distended neck veins would be the most appropriate assessment. Cor pulmonale is characterized by right ventricular failure due to pulmonary hypertension, leading to clinical manifestations such as peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness. These signs indicate increased central venous pressure and right heart strain, which can be assessed by observing for distended neck veins. Auscultating for crackles in the lungs is more indicative of left-sided heart failure rather than right-sided heart failure. Heaves or thrills over the heart are not typically associated with cor pulmonale. Reviewing hemoglobin and hematocrit values may show elevations due to chronic hypoxemia and polycythemia in cor pulmonale, but these values alone do not directly evaluate the immediate effectiveness of the prescribed therapies on the patient's condition.
Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.
Which action should the nurse take to evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To evaluate treatment effectiveness for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy, requesting the patient to walk with eyes closed is crucial. This test assesses the patient's balance, gait, and coordination, which can be impaired in hepatic encephalopathy due to altered mental status and brain function. Walking with eyes closed challenges the patient's sensory input and proprioception, providing valuable information on improvement or deterioration in neurological function. Asking the patient to extend both arms forward is used to check for asterixis, a sign often seen in hepatic encephalopathy, but it is not specific for evaluating treatment effectiveness. Performing the Valsalva maneuver is unrelated to assessing hepatic encephalopathy and is more commonly used in cardiac evaluations. Observing the patient's breathing pattern may be important in other conditions but is not directly relevant to evaluating treatment effectiveness for hepatic encephalopathy.
Signs and symptoms of stroke may include all of the following EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hypotension is not a typical sign or symptom of an acute stroke. The correct signs and symptoms of a stroke include sudden weakness or numbness of the face, arm, or leg, sudden confusion, and a sudden headache with no known cause. Hypotension, which refers to low blood pressure, is not a common indicator of a stroke. It is important to differentiate between hypotension and hypertension in the context of stroke symptoms, as hypertension (high blood pressure) is actually a risk factor for strokes. Sudden weakness, numbness, confusion, and headache are signs associated with a stroke due to a disruption in blood flow to the brain. Hypotension, on the other hand, primarily indicates low blood pressure and is not directly linked to the typical presentation of a stroke.
A patient is being admitted to the ICU with a severe case of encephalitis. Which of these drugs would the nurse not expect to be prescribed for this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the treatment of encephalitis, medications like Acyclovir and Phenytoin are commonly prescribed. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections like herpes simplex virus, which can cause encephalitis. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that may be used to manage seizures associated with encephalitis. Mannitol is a diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by decreasing cerebral edema. Lactated Ringer's solution, on the other hand, is primarily used in fluid replacement therapy and may not be indicated if a patient is at risk for high ICP, as excessive fluid administration could worsen cerebral edema and increase ICP.
Which of the following diseases or disorders is acute?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Pneumonia. Pneumonia is an acute illness characterized by inflammation of the air sacs in the lungs. It comes on suddenly and typically lasts for a short duration. Treatment can help cure pneumonia. Paralysis, Alzheimer's disease, and Diabetes are chronic conditions. Paralysis is the loss of muscle function in part of the body, usually permanent. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive brain disorder leading to memory loss and cognitive decline, and it is incurable. Diabetes is a chronic condition that affects how your body turns food into energy, and it requires lifelong management. Therefore, Pneumonia is the only acute condition among the options provided.
A 64-year-old patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a patient with ALS, progressive muscle weakness is a significant issue. Assisting with active range of motion (ROM) exercises will help maintain muscle strength for as long as possible. Agitation and paranoia are not typically associated with ALS, making choice B incorrect. Giving muscle relaxants can further weaken muscles and depress respirations, worsening the condition, so choice C is inappropriate. Choice D is not directly related to the patient's physical condition and needs.
In which order should the nurse take the following actions for an older patient with new onset confusion who is normally alert and oriented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order of actions for the nurse in this scenario is to first obtain the oxygen saturation to assess the patient's airway and oxygenation status. Next, checking the patient's pulse rate helps in evaluating circulation. Subsequently, documenting the change in the patient's status is important for maintaining an accurate record of care. Finally, notifying the health care provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and further management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing oxygen saturation should precede checking the pulse rate to address potential physiological causes of confusion. Additionally, documentation should follow patient assessment and notification of the healthcare provider for appropriate record-keeping and communication.
A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.
Your patient has shown the following signs and symptoms: Feeling very thirsty, large amount of water intake, dryness of the mouth, and urinary frequency. What physical disorder does this patient most likely have?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient is exhibiting classic signs of diabetes, such as polydipsia (feeling very thirsty), polyuria (large amount of water intake and urinary frequency), and xerostomia (dryness of the mouth). These symptoms are indicative of high blood glucose levels, which are characteristic of diabetes. Other common signs of diabetes include poor vision, unexplained weight loss, peripheral neuropathy (tingling in the feet and hands), and fatigue. Angina is chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient. Hypertension is high blood pressure, which typically does not present with these specific symptoms related to diabetes. Hypotension is low blood pressure and is not consistent with the signs and symptoms presented by the patient, pointing more towards diabetes as the likely diagnosis.
The nurse plans health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from Vietnam. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tuberculosis (TB) is prevalent in many parts of Asia, including Vietnam, and the incidence of TB is higher in immigrants from Vietnam compared to the general U.S. population. Conducting tuberculosis screening is crucial to identify and address any cases promptly, especially in a community with recent immigrants from Vietnam. While teaching about contraceptive use, providing colonoscopy information, and testing for hepatitis may be relevant for certain individuals in the community, they are not as universally important as tuberculosis screening due to the increased risk of TB among Vietnamese immigrants.
A healthcare professional is preparing to palpate and percuss a patient's abdomen as part of the assessment process. Which of these findings would cause the healthcare professional to immediately discontinue this part of the assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen is indicative of a life-threatening aortic aneurysm. Palpating or percussing such an area can potentially cause the aneurysm to rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding and endangering the patient's life. Therefore, the healthcare professional should immediately discontinue the assessment to prevent any harm.\nChoice A is incorrect because the patient expressing concerns about the procedure does not necessarily indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C describes symptoms that should be further investigated but do not pose an immediate threat during abdominal assessment. Choice D, a prior endoscopic procedure, is not a contraindication for palpation or percussion of the abdomen unless there are specific complications or conditions related to the procedure that would require caution.
Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.
After performing an assessment of an infant with bladder exstrophy, the nurse prepares a plan of care. The nurse identifies which problem as the priority for the infant?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In bladder exstrophy, the bladder is exposed and external to the body, leading to impaired tissue integrity related to the exposed bladder mucosa as the priority problem. Urinary incontinence is not a concern as the infant is not yet toilet trained. Inability to suck and swallow is unrelated to the disorder. While educating the parents about the condition is important, it is not the priority over addressing the immediate risk of impaired tissue integrity in the infant.
The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.
A 30-year-old man is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin.' Normally, the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly, which could indicate an underlying health issue. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen, bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant, and aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area are all within normal limits for a physical assessment and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
An 80-year-old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a patient presenting with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, distended neck veins, and developing cardiac dysrhythmias, the priority intervention is to ensure the airway is open and unobstructed. Maintaining an open airway is crucial for adequate ventilation and oxygenation, especially in a patient showing signs of impending respiratory distress and cardiac compromise. While applying oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation is important, ensuring airway patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's ability to breathe. Administering Dobutamine may be necessary to improve cardiac output; however, addressing the airway first is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and worsening dysrhythmias. Starting an IV for monitoring fluid intake is not the most critical intervention in this scenario compared to ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.
The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.
A nurse is caring for an infant who has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Weight gain due to fluid accumulation is associated with heart failure and congenital heart defects. When the heart is unable to circulate blood normally, the kidneys receive less blood, leading to reduced fluid filtration into the urine. The excess fluid accumulates in various body parts such as the lungs, liver, eyes, and sometimes in the legs. Slow pulse rate (Choice A) is less likely as infants with heart failure typically present with tachycardia due to the body compensating for decreased cardiac output. Decreased systolic pressure (Choice C) is also less likely as heart failure typically leads to increased blood pressure as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion. Irregular white blood cell (WBC) values (Choice D) are not directly associated with congenital heart defects unless there is an underlying infection or inflammatory process.
A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed.
Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is contraindicated in morbidly obese clients due to several reasons. Excess body fat in morbidly obese individuals makes it challenging to locate essential landmarks required for the procedure. Additionally, the equipment utilized for the lavage may not be sized appropriately to accommodate an obese individual. Furthermore, morbid obesity places undue stress on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, increasing the risk of complications when administering anesthetic agents during the procedure. Therefore, performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage on a morbidly obese client is not recommended. Choice A, a client who is 9 weeks pregnant, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Pregnancy status alone does not preclude the procedure unless there are specific maternal or fetal concerns. Choice B, a client with a femur fracture, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. The presence of a femur fracture does not typically affect the ability to perform this diagnostic procedure. Choice D, a client with hypertension, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Hypertension, while a consideration for anesthesia and surgery, does not directly impact the feasibility of performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage.
When caring for a patient with Parkinson's Disease, which of the following practices would not be included in the care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain. Patients with Parkinson's Disease often experience dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and muscle rigidity, which can lead to weight loss. Therefore, increasing calorie intake is essential to meet their nutritional needs. Choice A is incorrect because reducing calories can worsen malnutrition in these patients. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for patients with Parkinson's Disease. Allowing extra time for tasks, using thickened liquids and a soft diet for swallowing difficulties, and encouraging self-feeding promote independence and safety in eating.
A client is being instructed in the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements from the nurse indicates correct teaching about using this device?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An incentive spirometer is a device used to improve lung function and reduce the risk of atelectasis. The correct way to use the spirometer is by sitting up and taking slow, deep breaths to achieve the set goal, not by lying back in a reclining position or taking rapid, quick breaths. Setting a goal of using the spirometer multiple times a day is beneficial, but it is not the best indicator of correct teaching. After using the spirometer, the client should practice coughing to help clear any loosened secretions that may have occurred during the breathing exercises.
When caring for a patient hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a student nurse who is assigned to take care of the patient. Which action, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a patient with active tuberculosis (TB), it is crucial to use a high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask instead of a standard surgical mask when entering the patient's room, as a HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles, reducing the risk of transmission. Therefore, if the student nurse applies only a surgical face mask before visiting the patient, this action would require intervention by the nurse to ensure the appropriate protective equipment is used. Hand washing before entering the patient's room is essential to prevent the spread of infection and is a correct action. Bringing a snack to the patient from the unit refrigerator is appropriate and helps address potential issues with anorexia and weight loss in patients with TB. While hand washing after handling a tissue used by the patient is necessary, no special precautions are required when offering the patient an unused tissue.
The healthcare provider is assessing the mental status of a client admitted with possible organic brain disorder. Which of these questions will best assess the function of the client's recent memory?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ask the client to perform a calculation that involves working memory and processing skills. This question not only assesses the recent memory but also evaluates attention and executive functioning. The choice 'I am going to say the names of three things, and I want you to repeat them after me: blue, ball, pen' assesses immediate recall rather than recent memory. Asking about the current year or season tests orientation rather than recent memory. Inquiring about the watch and its purpose assesses comprehension and judgment rather than recent memory.
A child is prescribed baclofen (Lioresal) via intrathecal pump to treat severe muscle spasms related to cerebral palsy. What teaching does the nurse provide the child and parents?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct teaching for the child and parents when a child is prescribed baclofen via an intrathecal pump is to not let the prescription run out. Abrupt discontinuation of intrathecal baclofen can lead to severe effects like high fever, altered mental status, and rebound spasticity and muscle rigidity. It is crucial for the parents to ensure there is always an adequate supply of this medication to prevent these adverse effects. Choices B and D are incorrect because gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism are side effects associated with phenytoin (Dilantin), not baclofen. Choice C is incorrect as serum drug levels are not typically monitored for intrathecal medications.
The nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric feeding tube. The most important action of the nurse is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing to administer enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube is to verify the correct placement of the tube. Proper placement of the tube is vital to prevent complications such as aspiration into the lungs. The definitive methods to confirm the position of the nasogastric tube include visualization through an x-ray or aspirating stomach contents and checking their pH (usually pH 1 to 5). Aspirated stomach content can also be tested for bilirubin to confirm placement in the stomach. Choice B, checking that the feeding solution matches the dietary order, is important for ensuring the correct nutrition is provided but is not as critical as verifying tube placement to prevent potential harm. Choice C, aspirating gastric contents to determine the amount of the last feeding remaining in the stomach, is a common nursing practice but is not the most crucial action when compared to ensuring correct tube placement. Choice D, ensuring that the feeding solution is at room temperature, is relevant for patient comfort and preventing thermal injury but is not as essential as confirming correct tube placement to prevent serious complications.
The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says 99 and notes absent fremitus. What action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as '99'. After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with conditions like pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but assessing breath sounds takes priority. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest). Palpating the anterior chest for fremitus is less effective due to the presence of large muscles and breast tissue, making auscultation a more appropriate next step.
A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31."? On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse's next action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to revise the target date for outcome attainment and reevaluate interventions. The initial desired outcome was for the patient to sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31. Since the patient is currently sleeping an average of 4 hours nightly and taking a 2-hour afternoon nap, the goal has not been achieved. By extending the time frame for attaining the outcome, the patient may have more time to progress towards the desired sleep duration. Additionally, examining interventions is crucial to identify any changes or adjustments that may be necessary to help the patient achieve the desired outcome. Continuing the current plan without changes is not appropriate as the goal has not been met. Removing the nursing diagnosis from the plan of care should only be considered when the problem is resolved. Writing a new nursing diagnosis is not needed as the current diagnosis of Insomnia still accurately reflects the patient's condition.
The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering analgesic therapy as ordered is the most appropriate action during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. In this phase, the primary focus is on managing the severe pain experienced by the individual. Analgesic therapy helps alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the crisis. The other options are not the priority during this phase. Fluid restriction is not recommended as hydration is crucial in managing a vasoocclusive crisis. Ambulation may worsen the pain and should be minimized during this phase. Encouraging increased caloric intake is not directly related to managing the acute phase of a vasoocclusive crisis.
While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, the nurse observes that the patient's SpO2 drops from 93% to 88% while the patient is ambulating in the hallway. What is the priority action of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The drop in SpO2 to 88% indicates that the patient is hypoxemic and needs supplemental oxygen when exercising. Administering PRN supplemental oxygen is the priority action to correct the hypoxemia and ensure adequate oxygenation during activity. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stabilizing the patient's oxygen levels. Documenting the response to exercise is important but secondary to addressing the immediate hypoxemia. Encouraging the patient to pace activity is not sufficient to address the acute drop in SpO2 and provide the necessary oxygen support.
During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.
When orally administering alendronate (Fosamax), a bisphosphonate drug, to a largely bed-bound patient being treated for osteoporosis, what is the most important nursing consideration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct nursing consideration when administering bisphosphonates like alendronate is to sit the head of the bed up for 30 minutes after administration. Bisphosphonates are known to cause esophageal irritation, which can lead to esophagitis. By sitting upright, the patient reduces the time the medication spends in the esophagus, decreasing the risk of irritation and potential adverse effects. Giving the patient water to drink or feeding them immediately after administration can increase the risk of esophageal irritation. Assessing the patient for back pain or abdominal pain is important but not the most critical consideration during drug administration.
Which response would best assist the chemically impaired client in dealing with issues of guilt?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is, 'What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?' This response encourages the client to reflect on their actions, identify sources of guilt, and develop a plan to address and reduce these feelings constructively. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's guilt as typical, potentially invalidating their emotions. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests avoiding guilty feelings by turning to substance use, which is counterproductive. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the negative consequences of the client's actions without offering a constructive way to address and alleviate guilt.
A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
Which of the following glands found in the skin secretes a liquid called Sebum?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sebum is a liquid secreted by glands in the skin known as sebaceous glands. Sebum's primary function is to lubricate the skin and help maintain its integrity. Apocrine glands secrete a different type of sweat that is odorless but can develop an odor when combined with bacteria on the skin. Lacrimal glands produce tears to keep the eyes moist, and sweat glands secrete sweat to regulate body temperature through evaporation. Therefore, the correct answer is Sebaceous Glands because they specifically secrete sebum, distinguishing them from the other gland types mentioned.
A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.
The nurse recognizes that teaching a 44-year-old woman following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy has been effective when the patient states which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, 'I can remove the bandages on my incisions tomorrow and take a shower.' After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, patients have Band-Aids over the incisions and can typically remove the bandages the next day. Patients are usually discharged the same or next day and have minimal restrictions on their daily activities. Yellow-green drainage from the incision would be abnormal, requiring the patient to contact their healthcare provider. While a low-fat diet may be recommended initially after surgery, it is not a lifelong requirement, as the body can adjust to the absence of the gallbladder over time. Choice A is incorrect as abnormal drainage should be reported. Choice C is incorrect as most patients can resume normal activities within a few days to a week. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining a low-fat diet is not a lifelong necessity after a cholecystectomy.
What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.
The nurse is counting a client's respiratory rate. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. Which respiratory rate should the nurse document?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most accurate respiratory rate is the second count obtained by the nurse, which was not interrupted by coughing. The nurse counted eight respirations over 30 seconds, so doubling this count gives a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. This calculation is based on the assumption that the client's breathing pattern remained relatively stable during the two 30-second intervals. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate count obtained without interruptions. Choice B (16) is the correct answer as it reflects the uninterrupted count of respirations by the nurse.
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