Free Psychosocial Integrity practice for NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions (NCLEX RN). Answer 56 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, a
After 5 years of unprotected intercourse, a childless couple comes to the fertility clinic. The husband tells the nurse that his parents have promised to make a down payment on a house for them if his wife gets pregnant this year. Which response would the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response acknowledges the emotional challenge the couple is facing due to the added pressure of the incentive from the husband's parents. By expressing empathy and understanding, the nurse encourages the couple to open up about their feelings and concerns. Choice B is not the best response as it dismisses the husband's situation and fails to address the emotional impact of the added pressure. Choice C focuses on the parents' offer rather than the couple's emotional state, which is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, mentioning the duration of infertility, may come across as insensitive and may hinder open communication by potentially making the couple feel judged or discouraged.
The nurse develops a goal that makes a client feel as if they are engaging in a competition. Which type of motivation is the nurse using in this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse is using power motivation in this situation. Power-motivated individuals tend to have assertive and aggressive behavior. By designing goals that make clients feel like they are in a competition, the nurse appeals to their need for power and accomplishment, even when they are competing against themselves. Affiliative motivation is characterized by nonassertive behavior and dependence on others, which is not applicable here. Avoidance motivation focuses on anxiety, fear of failure, and phobias, which are not relevant to the scenario. Achievement motivation does not involve aggressive behavior or the need for competition, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.
The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In caring for a client with severe depression, ensuring safety is a top priority. Suicide prevention measures must be incorporated into the care plan as individuals with depression are at increased risk. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the critical need to prevent harm or self-harm in depressed individuals.
During a discussion about glaucoma at the community center, which comment by one of the retirees would the nurse give a supportive comment to reinforce correct information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is ''I take extra fiber and drink lots of water to avoid getting constipated.'' In individuals with glaucoma, activities that involve straining, such as constipation, should be avoided as they can increase intraocular pressure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the management of glaucoma. Driving at night or taking sinus medication are not directly related to glaucoma, and sitting by the pool due to an eye problem does not provide information relevant to managing glaucoma.
Which is a true statement regarding stress related disorders?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that stress related disorders are also called psycho-physiologic disorders. These disorders have a physiologic basis for their development, but stress can exacerbate the symptoms. While stress plays a significant role in these disorders, they are not solely caused by stress. Choice A is incorrect as stress is a contributing factor rather than the sole cause. Choice B is incorrect because symptoms of stress related disorders can persist even when the individual is not actively experiencing stress. Choice D is incorrect as there is a true statement among the choices, which is that stress related disorders are also known as psycho-physiologic disorders.
What is the priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing action to assist an anxious father in his concern about not bonding with his newborn is providing time for the father to be alone with and get to know the baby. Time alone provides the opportunity for paternal-infant attachment and bonding, which can help reduce the father's anxiety. Encouraging the father to participate in a parenting class, although helpful, does not directly address the immediate need for bonding. Offering a demonstration on newborn care tasks like diapering, feeding, and bathing may not effectively address the father's anxiety at that moment, as he may not be ready to absorb such information. Allowing time for the father to ask questions after viewing a film about a new baby is a simplistic approach that may not adequately address the emotional needs and concerns of the father regarding bonding with his newborn.
Which statement by an 8-year-old girl, who was just admitted to the hospital, needs to be explored?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is C. An 8-year-old child showing a strong attraction to boys at this age may raise concerns about precocious sexual behavior or exposure to inappropriate sexual content, potentially signaling the need to investigate for possible sexual abuse. It is important to explore this statement further. Choice A, expressing admiration for bright colors, is a common behavior for children of this age and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice B, inquiring about the mother's visit, is a typical concern for a hospitalized child seeking comfort and support. Choice D, expressing fear and seeking reassurance from the nurse, is also a normal reaction for an 8-year-old in a new and possibly intimidating environment. However, the statement in Choice C stands out as it deviates from age-appropriate behavior and warrants further exploration to ensure the child's safety and well-being.
Which term or description would the nurse use for a client who repeatedly performs ritualistic behaviors throughout the day to limit anxious feelings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Compulsions.' A compulsion is an uncontrollable, persistent urge to perform an act repetitively to relieve anxiety. In this scenario, the client's repetitive ritualistic behaviors are indicative of compulsions. Obsessions, on the other hand, are persistent ideas, thoughts, or impulses that cannot be eliminated with logical reasoning. The behavior is not under personal control because avoiding it increases anxiety, making it a defense mechanism. It is not related to rebelliousness; instead, clients engage in these behaviors to reduce anxiety.
Which response would the nurse make at lunchtime to a client who is sitting alone with the head slightly tilted as if listening to something?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement, "It's lunchtime; I'll walk with you to the dining room," demonstrates setting limits and providing support. Hallucinations can be frightening, and the nurse's presence offers support and reality without focusing on the hallucination directly. Choice A, "I know you're busy, but it's lunchtime," does not recognize the client's need for support and direction. Choice B, "Are the voices bothering you again?", makes a judgment without sufficient evidence and overly focuses on the hallucination, failing to address the client's need for support and direction. Choice C, "Get going; you don't want to miss lunchtime," does not acknowledge the client's need for reality, support, and direction, and may come across as threatening.
A 28-year-old woman is recovering from her third consecutive spontaneous abortion in 2 years. Which is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for this client at her follow-up appointment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client recovering from multiple spontaneous abortions is to encourage the client to verbalize her feelings about the loss. This allows the client to express and process her emotions, facilitating the grieving process and emotional healing. Focusing solely on the client's physical needs, as in choice A, overlooks the importance of addressing the emotional aspect of the client's experience. Choice C, reminding the client that she will be able to become pregnant again, fails to acknowledge the current loss and may minimize the client's feelings of grief. Choice D, encouraging the client to think of herself, her husband, and their future, does not directly address the client's immediate emotional needs related to the recent loss. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate intervention to support the client in coping with her emotional distress.
Which behavior would the nurse recognize as developmentally atypical in preschoolers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is feeling happy if there is a newborn in the family. Preschoolers are more likely to exhibit feelings of stress and jealousy rather than happiness with the arrival of a new baby in the family. Thumb sucking and bed-wetting are common behaviors displayed by preschoolers during times of stress. Guilt typically arises in children when they perceive that they have not behaved appropriately. Preschoolers are known to be naturally curious about their surroundings, showing an interest in exploring and learning about the environment around them. Therefore, feeling happy with the birth of a new baby is developmentally atypical for preschoolers.
An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.
Which type of environment would be most suitable for a confused client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate environment for a confused client is a familiar one. A familiar environment provides security and safety, reducing stress for the confused client. Confused individuals struggle to adapt to constant changes, making a variable environment unsuitable. A challenging environment would likely increase anxiety and frustration in a confused client. Similarly, a stimulating environment could overwhelm the confused client, exacerbating their confusion.
A client is being assessed by a nurse for increased anxiety, restlessness, and insomnia. Which of the following interventions is the first priority for the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first priority when dealing with a client experiencing potential mental health issues is to ensure their safety. Taking the client to a private room helps to reduce external stimuli and staying with them ensures constant monitoring and support. This intervention can prevent any escalation of anxiety or restlessness and promote a sense of security for the client. Engaging in a conversation about improving rest and sleep is important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Administering medications should only be done after the client's safety is assured. Reviewing the client's medical history, while important, is not the immediate priority when the client is exhibiting acute symptoms of anxiety and restlessness.
A client has been diagnosed with depression, and a nurse is assisting them. Which of the following is an example of a short-term outcome as part of the nursing process for this client?
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Explanation:
In the nursing process for a client with depression, short-term outcomes are goals that need to be achieved before advancing towards long-term outcomes. Identifying life stressors that may be contributing to the depression is a crucial initial step. This process helps the client work through feelings of grief or sadness before moving on to long-term goals like therapy and depression management. Choice A is not a short-term outcome as the lifting of depression symptoms is usually a long-term goal. Choice C focuses on resolving insomnia, which is a symptom of depression, but not directly addressing the root cause. Choice D involves identifying a mental health counselor for ongoing therapy, which is more aligned with a long-term treatment plan, rather than a short-term outcome.
What action would the nurse take for a 4-year-old child who is called to the operating room for a planned myringotomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action is to have the parents accompany the child to the operating suite. Current practice encourages parents to stay with the child as long as possible to reduce stress related to a frightening experience. Removing the child's undergarments is usually not necessary for a myringotomy procedure. Placing the child's toys on the bedside table is important, especially a favorite one, for comfort until sedation is induced. Allowing the child to climb onto the stretcher may not be safe or appropriate as the child is too young to do so independently.
The nurse is caring for an Asian patient who is being admitted to the hospital. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when interviewing this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Observing the patient's use of eye contact will be most useful in determining the best way to communicate effectively with the patient. Different cultures have varying norms regarding eye contact, so by observing the patient, the nurse can adapt their communication style accordingly. Looking directly at the patient or avoiding eye contact may not be universally appropriate and could be misinterpreted. Asking a family member about the patient's cultural beliefs is not ideal as cultural beliefs can vary among individuals within the same cultural group. It is best to assess the patient directly to provide culturally sensitive care.
Which nursing intervention would be provided to a hospitalized client during the identity versus role confusion stage?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the identity versus role confusion stage, which occurs during adolescence or puberty, it is essential for the nurse to empower hospitalized adolescents by providing them with sufficient information about their treatment plan. This approach enables the clients to actively participate in decision-making regarding their care. Choosing creative ways to promote social participation is more aligned with assisting clients during the generativity versus self-absorption and stagnation stage, where fostering social engagement can contribute to a sense of fulfillment. Involving the client's partners or family members in the caring process is typically beneficial during the intimacy versus isolation stage to create a strong support system for the client. Encouraging active participation in treatment procedures is more relevant to the industry versus inferiority stage, ensuring that the hospitalized client engages effectively in their care.
Nursing behaviors associated with the implementation phase of the nursing process are concerned with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the implementation phase of the nursing process, nurses focus on executing interventions and coordinating care. This involves utilizing available resources, performing necessary interventions, exploring alternatives when needed, and collaborating with other healthcare team members to ensure comprehensive care delivery. Choice A is incorrect as it pertains more to the planning phase where patient outcomes are identified. Choice B is incorrect as it relates to data collection, which is primarily a part of the assessment phase. Choice C is incorrect as it involves evaluating patient responses against expected outcomes, which is part of the evaluation phase.
Which of the following is a symptom associated with sensory overload?
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Explanation:
Disorientation is a common symptom associated with sensory overload. When an individual experiences sensory overload, their brain may become overwhelmed with excessive information, leading to disorientation. This can manifest as an inability to concentrate, racing thoughts, and restless behavior. Sensory overload occurs when a person is unable to either control the amount of environmental stimuli they are exposed to or process the stimuli effectively. Drowsiness, emotional lability, and depression are not typical symptoms of sensory overload. Drowsiness may indicate fatigue or boredom, emotional lability refers to rapid and exaggerated changes in mood, and depression is a mood disorder characterized by persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness.
Which of the following is a nursing intervention for a client who is experiencing an acute panic attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assisting a client with an acute panic attack, the primary goal is to help reduce their anxiety levels. Encouraging the client to focus on one controllable aspect, like regulating breathing patterns, can aid in calming them down. This intervention helps the client to regain control over their breathing, which can alleviate some of the symptoms associated with panic attacks. Options A and B are incorrect because allowing the client to direct the situation or sit down in a quiet environment may not be beneficial during an acute panic attack. Option D is inappropriate as speaking in a commanding tone can further escalate the client's anxiety rather than helping to calm them down.
Based on Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which client is demonstrating characteristics of self-actualization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, self-actualization is the highest level where individuals strive to reach their full potential and achieve personal growth. A self-actualized person, as per Maslow, has an accurate perception of reality and is accepting of themselves and others. This individual is characterized by traits such as fairness, independence, spontaneity, and creativity. While choices A, B, and C represent important aspects of human needs fulfillment, they align more closely with lower levels in Maslow's hierarchy. Choice A refers to meeting self-esteem needs, choice B relates to love and belonging needs, and choice C addresses safety needs, all of which are below self-actualization in the hierarchy of needs.
In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. What action should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is the responsibility of the surgeon to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. While the nurse can witness the client's signature on the permit, the procedure must first be explained by the healthcare provider or surgeon, including addressing the client's questions. Therefore, informing the surgeon is the priority to ensure proper communication and consent before the surgery. Answering the client's questions about the surgery (Choice B) may not provide accurate information and could lead to misunderstanding. Reassuring the client (Choice D) is important, but obtaining proper consent and addressing concerns should come first. Witnessing the client's signature (Choice A) is not sufficient if the client has unanswered questions and the permit is not signed.
What nonverbal action should the nurse implement to demonstrate active listening?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Active listening is effectively demonstrated through attentive verbal and nonverbal communication strategies. To convey active listening and show the client that the nurse is engaged and attentive, it is essential for the nurse to sit facing the client. This posture communicates openness and willingness to listen. Option B, crossing arms and legs, creates a barrier and can signal defensiveness or disinterest, making it an incorrect choice. Option C, avoiding eye contact, hinders the establishment of a connection and can convey disengagement. Option D, leaning back in the chair, may give the impression of disinterest or lack of engagement. Therefore, maintaining eye contact and sitting facing the client are crucial nonverbal actions to exhibit active listening and promote effective therapeutic communication.
Before discharging an anxious client, which information about anxiety would the nurse teach the family?
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Explanation:
Anxiety is a human response consisting of both physical and emotional changes that everyone experiences when faced with stressful situations. It is a pattern of emotional and behavioral responses to stress. Anxiety is a common experience for many individuals. Apprehension is usually related to a specific aspect of the environment rather than the total environment. Fears are not intentionally or consciously generated.
Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?
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Explanation:
In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indifférence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.
The nurse evaluates the client's progress and determines that one of the nursing diagnoses on the client's care plan has been resolved. How should the nurse document this so that it is best communicated to the healthcare team?
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Explanation:
To discontinue a diagnosis once it has been resolved, cross it off with a single line or highlight it, then write initials and date. Some agency forms may require the nurse to put date and initials in a 'Date Resolved' column. Using Liquid PaperTM is not a legal way to amend client records as it can obscure the original documentation. Recopying the care plan without the resolved diagnosis can lead to confusion and inaccuracies in the client's record. Writing a nursing progress note indicating that the outcome goals have been achieved is important but should not be the sole method used to communicate the resolution of a nursing diagnosis. Drawing a single line through the resolved diagnosis on the care plan and documenting the nurse's initials and date is the most effective way to communicate the resolution of a nursing diagnosis to the healthcare team.
A client recently had an abdominoperineal resection and colostomy. While the nurse changes the dressing, the client states, 'You think that it looks repulsive.' The nurse identifies that the client is using which defense mechanism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Projection. Projection is the defense mechanism where unacceptable feelings and emotions are attributed to others. In this scenario, the client is projecting their own feelings of repulsion onto the nurse. Sublimation involves substituting socially acceptable feelings to replace threatening ones. Compensation refers to overachievement in a different area to cover up a weakness. Intellectualization is the use of mental reasoning to avoid facing emotional aspects of a situation.
A client had a first-trimester abortion and has been unable to function for 3 months. Which type of grief is the client experiencing?
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Explanation:
The client is experiencing disenfranchised grief. Disenfranchised grief refers to grief over a loss that is not socially recognized or acknowledged. In this case, grief after an abortion falls into this category. It can lead to prolonged emotional distress as the loss may not be openly acknowledged or supported by others. Complex bereavement is characterized by dysfunctional grieving that extends beyond 12 months. Anticipatory grief occurs when the loss is expected or predictable, allowing individuals to start the grieving process before the actual loss. Complicated grief is marked by an inability to progress through the grief stages, leading to intense feelings of depression, anger, and emptiness, often coupled with a preoccupation with the deceased.
Under what patient conditions or situations are restraints sometimes used?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Restraints are sometimes used to prevent a patient from pulling out their IV or another life-saving tube and when the person poses a serious danger to themselves and/or others. Restraints are never used as a form of punishment. Choice A is incorrect because restraints are not utilized for punishment but for patient safety and care. Choice B and C are correct because they reflect the appropriate and necessary situations where restraints may be used in healthcare settings.
Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.
Which nursing action promotes psychosocial development for a newborn?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing the newborn in the mother's arms during the first hour of life is a crucial nursing action that promotes psychosocial development by fostering bonding between the newborn and the mother. This skin-to-skin contact enhances emotional attachment, facilitates breastfeeding initiation, and provides a sense of security for the newborn. It helps in regulating the newborn's temperature, heart rate, and breathing, promoting overall well-being. Washing hands before holding the newborn is essential for infection prevention and control to maintain the newborn's health and safety. Measuring the newborn using an approved length board and weighing the newborn on the same scale during hospitalization are assessments aimed at monitoring the newborn's physical growth and development, rather than directly promoting psychosocial well-being.
A client in a long-term care facility reports to the nurse that he has not had a bowel movement in 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first step in addressing a client's reported change in bowel habits is to assess the client's normal bowel pattern. This assessment helps the nurse understand the client's typical bowel habits and identify any deviations from the norm. By assessing the medical record first, the nurse gains valuable information that guides further interventions. In this scenario, offering prune juice (Option A) or increasing fluids (Option D) may not be appropriate until the client's normal bowel pattern is known. Notifying the healthcare provider for a large-volume enema (Option B) is premature without understanding the client's baseline. Therefore, assessing the client's medical record is the priority before proceeding with any interventions.
Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention when providing care for parents who have experienced a stillbirth?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate nursing intervention when caring for parents who have experienced a stillbirth is to provide them with the opportunity to say goodbye to their newborn. This helps in the grieving process and allows the parents closure. Giving a detailed explanation of possible causes of the stillbirth may overwhelm the parents and is not the immediate priority. While an autopsy can be performed in the case of a stillbirth, the decision should be discussed with the parents and their wishes respected. Arranging follow-up care and providing information before the parents leave the hospital is crucial in ensuring they have the necessary support and resources to cope with the loss effectively.
A health care provider discusses with a client the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy. After the health care provider leaves the room, the client tells the nurse about being relieved that only minor surgery is necessary. Which psychological process explains this client's reaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's reaction of believing that only minor surgery is necessary when faced with the need for an abdominoperineal resection and a colostomy is an example of repudiation. Repudiation involves a refusal to acknowledge anticipated loss as a defense mechanism against the overwhelming stress of illness. The client is psychologically denying the seriousness of the situation. The other choices are incorrect because: - Reflection (Choice A) does not apply since the client is not contemplating the issues of the situation. - Regression (Choice B) is not demonstrated as the client's behavior does not indicate reverting to an earlier stage of development. - Reconciliation (Choice D) is not applicable as the client has not made a realistic adjustment to the illness but rather is in denial of its severity.
An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response by the nurse in this scenario is option C. By acknowledging and affirming the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection correctly, the nurse is providing positive reinforcement. This positive reinforcement helps to build the client's confidence and encourages them to take total responsibility for their daily injections. Option A, while positive, does not specifically reinforce the client's behavior related to giving the injection. Option B focuses on the client's feelings of nervousness, which may not be helpful in promoting independence. Option D, by offering help without assessing the client's actual needs, reinforces dependence on the nurse rather than encouraging self-reliance.
An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.
The parents of a child often try to persuade their preschooler to touch their pet dog to reduce the child's fear of dogs. Instead, the child's fears and anxiety increase. Which advice would the nurse suggest to help overcome their child's fear?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To help the child overcome their fear of dogs, the nurse should recommend letting the child watch other children playing with dogs. This approach allows the child to observe interactions with dogs in a safe environment, gradually building comfort and familiarity. Encouraging the child to touch the dog's back gently may increase fear and anxiety, as it could be overwhelming for the child. Keeping the child away from dogs for a few years does not address the fear directly and may not help the child overcome it. Bringing in a pet cat, while introducing the child to animals, does not specifically target the fear of dogs and may not effectively reduce the fear and anxiety associated with dogs.
A client decides to have hospice care rather than undergo an extensive surgical procedure. Which ethical principle does the client's behavior illustrate?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Autonomy.' Autonomy refers to an individual's right to make decisions about their own care. In this scenario, the client is choosing hospice care over surgery, demonstrating their autonomy in making healthcare choices. Justice involves fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and services, which is not the primary ethical principle illustrated in this case. Veracity pertains to truthfulness and honesty, which is not directly related to the client's decision-making process. Beneficence refers to the duty to do good and act in the best interest of the patient, which is not the central ethical principle demonstrated by the client's decision for hospice care.
An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.
What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.
Which signs and symptoms would the nurse observe in a client with schizophrenia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with schizophrenia, the nurse would observe loosened associations and hallucinations. Loosened associations refer to disorganized thinking where thoughts are not logically connected. Hallucinations involve perceiving things that are not based in reality. Traumatic flashbacks and hypervigilance are more indicative of post-traumatic stress disorder. Depression and psychomotor retardation are common in depression, not schizophrenia. Ritualistic behavior and obsessive thinking are typically seen in obsessive-compulsive disorders, not schizophrenia.
Which of the following is an example of passive aggression?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Passive aggression involves expressing negative feelings indirectly, such as through subtle actions or behaviors. While choices A, B, and D involve more direct and aggressive expressions of anger, jealousy is an example of passive aggression where negative emotions are subtly displayed without openly confronting the issue. Jealousy can manifest as resentment, envy, or possessiveness, and is a common form of passive aggression in interpersonal relationships.
Which action by a client who requires an above-the-knee amputation for peripheral arterial disease best indicates emotional readiness for the surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Participating actively in learning self-care demonstrates emotional acceptance of the need for surgery and readiness for planning post-surgery. Explaining the goals of the procedure may reflect intellectual readiness but not necessarily emotional readiness. A client who shows few signs of anticipatory grief may be suppressing emotions or in denial, which can hinder the emotional readiness. Verbalizing acceptance of permanent dependency needs suggests the client may require further education and emotional support, as it may not reflect a healthy emotional readiness for the surgery.
A toddler is 26 months old and has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the toddler in?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct stage for a toddler who is 26 months old, according to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, is Autonomy vs. shame and doubt. This stage occurs between 18 months to 3 years of age. During this stage, children are focused on developing a greater sense of control and independence. Choice A, Trust vs. mistrust, is the first stage occurring from birth to 18 months, where infants learn to trust or mistrust their caregivers based on their care. Choice B, Initiative vs. guilt, is the third stage occurring from 3 to 5 years, where children start to assert themselves more. Choice D, Intimacy vs. isolation, is a stage occurring in adulthood, not relevant to a toddler's development.
Which therapeutic approach would indicate the client is receiving desensitization therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Imagery.' Imagery is a therapeutic approach used in desensitization therapy. It helps in facilitating positive self-talk and involves the client initiating and controlling mental pictures to correct faulty cognitions. Modeling, role-playing, and assertiveness training are effective general behavioral approaches but are not specific to desensitization therapy.
Which of the following is an age-related developmental task for a 68-year-old client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
As individuals age, they face various developmental tasks unique to that stage of life. For a 68-year-old client, dealing with the loss of friends becomes a significant aspect of their development. This age group often experiences the passing of peers and friends, leading to feelings of loneliness and the need to adjust to a changing social circle. Commitment to parenthood (Choice B) is more relevant to younger adults in their child-rearing years. Setting career goals (Choice C) is typically associated with early to mid-career stages rather than later in life. Solidification of sense of self (Choice D) is a task that is more commonly associated with earlier adulthood when individuals are establishing their identity. Therefore, the most appropriate developmental task for a 68-year-old client is dealing with the loss of friends.
A client was admitted to the psychiatric unit after complaining to her friends and family that neighbors have bugged her home in order to hear all of her business. She remains aloof from other clients, paces the floor and believes that the hospital is a house of torture. Nursing interventions for the client should appropriately focus on efforts to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct nursing intervention for the client in this scenario is to provide interactions to help the client learn to trust staff. This approach focuses on building trust and establishing a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply convincing the client that the hospital staff is trying to help may not address the underlying issue of trust. Choice B is not the priority at this stage as the client is exhibiting symptoms of paranoia and discomfort. Choice D may further isolate the client and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to engage in interactions that promote trust and a therapeutic connection between the client and the staff.
What factor is likely the reason a woman with bipolar disorder, manic episode, rarely eats?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a manic episode of bipolar disorder, individuals often experience hyperactivity and an inability to stay still. This hyperactivity can manifest as excessive physical activity, which can prevent them from eating regularly. The correct answer is 'Excessive physical activity' because it directly relates to the woman's lack of appetite during the manic episode. Feelings of guilt, the need to control others, and the desire for punishment are not typically associated with eating difficulties in individuals with bipolar disorder during a manic episode. Clients in a manic episode usually have heightened energy levels and may engage in activities that exhaust them, leading to a decreased focus on eating.
A client who exhibits blurred and double vision and muscular weakness is informed of the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). The client becomes visibly upset. Which response would the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The response 'That must have shocked you. Tell me what the health care provider told you about it' acknowledges the effect of the diagnosis on the client and explores what is known. This response shows empathy and encourages the client to share their understanding. There is no evidence of ineffective coping, so a referral to a psychiatrist is not necessary at this initial stage. The statement 'Don't worry; early treatment often alleviates symptoms of the disease' provides false reassurance as the course of MS varies for each individual and may not always respond well to treatment. The statement 'You should be glad we caught it early so it can be cured' does not address the client's current emotional state and is inaccurate; MS is a chronic autoimmune disease that currently has no cure.
A teenager begins to cry while talking with the nurse about the problem of not being able to make friends. Which is the correct therapeutic nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct therapeutic nursing intervention in this situation is sitting quietly with the client. This approach conveys empathy, acceptance, and a willingness to listen, which can help the teenager feel supported and understood. It is important for the nurse to create a safe space for the client to express their emotions without judgment. Telling the client that crying is not helpful dismisses their feelings and can hinder the therapeutic relationship. Suggesting a board game as a distraction may prevent the client from fully exploring and addressing their emotions about the issue. Recommending how the client can change the situation may be premature at this stage, as the priority is to provide emotional support and establish trust before delving into problem-solving.
Which method is used to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct method to verify the placement of a newly inserted central venous access device (CVAD) is a chest x-ray. This is crucial to detect any potential complications such as pneumothorax, which can occur during subclavian vein catheter insertion. Symptoms of pneumothorax may include shortness of breath and anxiety. Flushing the line with heparin is not used for placement verification, but rather for maintaining patency after verification. Withdrawing blood to ensure patency is done after placement is confirmed, not for initial verification. Chest fluoroscopy may be used during the insertion process but is not typically employed for placement verification.
A female nurse is assessing a male patient of Arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches. It is most important for the nurse to intervene if she takes which action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In some Arab cultures, it is not considered appropriate for a male to be alone with a female who is not his spouse. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to respect the patient's cultural beliefs and privacy by ensuring that a female nurse is not alone with the male patient. Sitting down at the bedside and closing the privacy curtain could potentially lead to a situation where the nurse is alone with the patient, which goes against the patient's cultural norms. The other actions, such as explaining the pain scale, asking about the onset of headaches, and requesting a male nurse to bring a hospital gown, are all appropriate and do not conflict with the patient's cultural beliefs.
Which implemented strategies would not be effective in preventing post-traumatic stress in the nursing staff?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent post-traumatic stress in the nursing staff, it is crucial to avoid overworking them. Encouraging staff to work for more than 12 hours per day can lead to burnout and increased stress levels, thus exacerbating post-traumatic stress. Providing breaks whenever needed is essential to ensure rest and rejuvenation during demanding shifts. Encouraging staff to support and uplift their coworkers can create a positive work environment, fostering resilience against stress. Additionally, promoting open communication by asking staff and managers to discuss their feelings can facilitate emotional processing and mutual support, ultimately reducing the risk of post-traumatic stress.
According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
A client who is in a late stage of pancreatic cancer intellectually understands the terminal nature of the illness. Which behaviors indicate the client is emotionally accepting the impending death?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Revising the will and planning a visit to a friend are indicative of emotional acceptance of impending death as they demonstrate realistic, productive, and constructive ways of using the remaining time. Alternating between crying and talking openly about death may suggest depression rather than acceptance. Seeking multiple medical opinions shows disbelief, denial, or desperation rather than acceptance. Refusing treatments and stating they won't help reflects anger and hopelessness, not acceptance.
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