Free Health Promotion and Maintenance practice for NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet (NCLEX RN). Answer 37 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam
Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection.
Which of the following is an example of a breach of a client's right to privacy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A breach of a client's right to privacy can occur when their personal information is used or disclosed without their consent. In this scenario, using a client's photograph without permission for the hospital newsletter violates their privacy rights. It is important to respect a client's confidentiality and seek their consent before using their personal information. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to breaching a client's right to privacy. Reading a client's personal information in their chart, not allowing a client to keep a copy of their medical record, and filing an incident report about a client do not necessarily violate their privacy rights as long as the information is handled appropriately and within legal and ethical boundaries.
You are caring for a Hispanic patient who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. A member of the surgery staff is in a hurry when she visits the patient to obtain surgical consent. You know that the patient speaks limited English and can see that he does not really understand what's being said. What is the most appropriate next action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Consulting the hospital translator is the most reliable means of ensuring accuracy in the information that the patient is receiving. Family members can be helpful, but they may have difficulty understanding the medical procedures well enough to explain them accurately and may misinterpret the message. Relying on family members could lead to misunderstandings or miscommunication. Allowing the consent to be signed without ensuring the patient's full understanding could pose risks to the patient's well-being. Asking the staff member to come back later delays the essential communication process needed before surgery. Therefore, consulting the hospital translator is the best course of action to ensure clear and accurate communication, especially in critical healthcare decisions like surgical consent.
An 18-year-old male patient informs the nurse that he isn't sure if he is homosexual because he is attracted to both genders. The nurse establishes a trusting relationship with the patient by saying:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is important for the nurse to validate the patient's concerns and provide a supportive environment. By acknowledging that it is normal for young adults to have questions about sexuality, the nurse helps the patient feel understood and accepted. This response encourages further discussion and exploration of the patient's feelings without judgment. Choice A dismisses the patient's concerns and implies that his feelings are not valid. Choice B stigmatizes the patient's feelings by labeling them as abnormal and suggests therapy without proper assessment. Choice D addresses the patient's feelings but lacks the validation and reassurance present in the correct answer, which is essential in building a trusting relationship with the patient.
While assessing a one-month-old infant, which of the findings does not warrant further investigation by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abdominal respirations in infants are considered normal due to the underdeveloped intercostal muscles. Infants rely more on their abdominal muscles to facilitate breathing since their intercostal muscles are not fully matured. Therefore, abdominal respirations do not typically require further investigation. Inspiratory grunt, nasal flaring, and cyanosis are findings that warrant additional assessment as they can indicate potential respiratory distress or other underlying health issues in infants. Inspiratory grunt may suggest respiratory distress, nasal flaring can be a sign of increased work of breathing, and cyanosis indicates poor oxygenation, all of which require prompt evaluation and intervention to ensure the infant's well-being.
Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.
The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old child for symptoms of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which assessment finding should lead the nurse to question the diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age.' Children with autism spectrum disorder typically struggle with language and communication skills, so comprehending language well beyond their age level would not align with the diagnosis of ASD. This finding could indicate other developmental strengths or delays. Choices A, B, and D are more commonly associated with ASD - the inability to react appropriately to social cues, engaging in repetitive behaviors, and displaying self-destructive behavior are typical manifestations of autism spectrum disorder.
A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.
A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The presence of small blue-white spots on the oral mucosa, known as Koplik's spots, is characteristic of measles (rubeola) infection. These spots typically appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars, 1-2 days before the rash onset, and last until 2 days after the rash appears. While Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles, their absence does not rule out the diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the rash pattern, presence of low-grade fever, and characteristic appearance of lesions are not specific indicators of measles infection.
In which situation might an occupational health nurse consultation be necessary?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An occupational health nurse is involved in assessing the work environment, educating employees about safety practices, and infection control. When a nurse sustains an injury due to incorrect body mechanics, it falls under the purview of an occupational health nurse because they are responsible for documenting such incidents, providing necessary care or treatment, and ensuring that preventive measures are in place to avoid similar accidents in the future. The other options do not directly relate to the role of an occupational health nurse. Testifying in court, assisting a client with rehabilitation, or implementing a new electronic health record system are not typical scenarios where an occupational health nurse would be involved.
A 3-year-old pediatric patient's mother would like to stay at the patient's bedside throughout the night as the patient seems calmer when she is present. What is the most caring and appropriate response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Allowing the mother to stay throughout the night is the most caring and appropriate response in this situation. Pediatric facilities often recognize the crucial role parents play in their child's care and are supportive of unlimited visitation. Allowing the mother to stay can help maintain the child's calmness and enhance the bond between the family and healthcare team. Reinforcing visiting hours (Choice A) may not address the specific needs of this situation where the child benefits from the mother's presence. Allowing her to stay for a short period beyond normal hours (Choice B) may not fully address the need for her continuous presence. Offering to get bedding for a couch in the waiting room (Choice D) may not be necessary if the mother can stay with her child in the patient's room.
A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.
The client is receiving discharge teaching seven (7) days post myocardial infarction and inquires why he must wait six (6) weeks before engaging in sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Following a myocardial infarction, there is a risk of cardiac rupture at the site of the infarction for approximately six (6) weeks until scar tissue forms. The advice to wait until the client can climb two flights of stairs without issues is common among healthcare providers as it indicates an adequate level of physical exertion tolerance and suggests a lower risk of complications during sexual activity. Choice A is not specific to the recovery timeline related to sexual activity post-myocardial infarction. Choice C is inappropriate as alcohol consumption should not be recommended before sexual activity. Choice D, though promoting an active lifestyle, does not directly address the safety concerns related to sexual intercourse post-myocardial infarction.
A woman presents with bruises on her face and back in various stages of healing. She states, 'sometimes he just gets so angry.' Which of the following statements is most appropriate as a response from the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information by asking the client to elaborate on what occurs when the individual in question gets angry. It is essential for the nurse to understand the situation better before taking any action or making assumptions. Option A and B are repetitive and do not encourage further exploration of the situation. Option C offers a false promise and reassurance that the nurse cannot guarantee, which may not be helpful in addressing the client's needs.
Jaime has a diagnosis of schizophrenia with negative symptoms. In planning care for the client, Nurse Brienne would anticipate a problem with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as Jaime, a common problem is avolition, which is the lack of motivation for activities. These 'negative' symptoms are characterized by inexpressive faces, blank looks, monotone speech, few gestures, and a seeming lack of interest in the world. Patients may also experience an inability to feel pleasure or act spontaneously. It is crucial to differentiate between the lack of expression and lack of feeling, as well as between lack of will and lack of activity. Auditory hallucinations (choice A) are positive symptoms, not typically associated with negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Bizarre behaviors (choice B) are more aligned with positive symptoms like disorganized behavior. Ideas of reference (choice C) involve incorrectly interpreting casual incidents and external events as having direct reference to oneself, which is not directly related to motivation for activities seen in negative symptoms.
Sinusitis is caused by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sinusitis can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. While bacterial infections are the most common cause, viral or fungal infections can also lead to sinusitis. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Any of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they only represent individual causes of sinusitis, whereas choice D encompasses all possible causes.
A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.
Victor, a 43-year-old patient who is HIV positive with a diagnosis of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), has been admitted to the hospital. His prognosis is very poor, and his partner, Roger, would like to have a ceremony performed in his room to honor their union in case something happens to Victor, who agrees. What is the most appropriate response to their request?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate and compassionate response is to respect Victor and Roger's relationship and honor their wishes. Coordinating with other disciplines, such as social work, chaplaincy, or patient advocacy, to support their request demonstrates a holistic approach to care. This collaborative effort can facilitate the ceremony and provide emotional support to both Victor and Roger during a challenging time. Upholding their request aligns with the principles of patient-centered care and promotes dignity and respect, as outlined in the ANA Code of Ethics. Informing them that Victor is too ill for a ceremony (Choice A) would dismiss their emotional needs and fail to address their request. Involving the social worker without understanding the specific request (Choice B) may not directly address their desire for a ceremony. Telling them it's against hospital policy (Choice C) disregards the importance of honoring patient preferences and may cause unnecessary distress in an already sensitive situation.
Mr. Freeman has difficulty getting out of bed. The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to ______________.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should encourage Mr. Freeman to use his call bell and ask for assistance before getting out of bed. This can prevent him from falling. Patients should not stay in bed; they should be encouraged to get out of bed as much as possible to prevent complications like pressure ulcers and muscle weakness. Instructing a patient to stand up quickly from the bed is unsafe as it can lead to dizziness and falls. Similarly, leaning forward and pushing off the bed can increase the risk of falls and should be avoided. Asking for assistance is the safest and most appropriate option to ensure patient safety and prevent accidents.
OSHA has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them. These regulations include all of the following EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
OSHA regulations for hospital employees dealing with hazardous materials or exposed patients require respiratory protection for potentially exposed employees, training on respiratory protection, and the provision of personal protective equipment. However, not all ED personnel are required to be trained in decontamination procedures. While all ED staff should have a basic understanding of hazmat situations, specific training in decontamination procedures is only necessary for those who will be directly involved in the decontamination process. Therefore, the correct answer is that all ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures, as this is not a mandatory requirement under OSHA regulations for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or exposed patients.
You are caring for a patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis. Discharge instructions will likely include all of the following EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discharge instructions for a patient with newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis should focus on promoting safety and minimizing exacerbations. Hot baths should be avoided as excessive heat can trigger acute symptoms. Therefore, instructions may include PT referral for an exercise program to maintain mobility, avoidance of prolonged sun exposure to prevent symptom exacerbation, and guidance to evaluate the home environment for safety as symptoms progress. Hot baths are not recommended due to the risk of exacerbating symptoms, making it the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate for a patient with multiple sclerosis, as they address mobility, symptom management, and safety concerns, respectively.
How can the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients be prevented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Bed alarms, chair alarms, and door alarms are all effective measures to prevent the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients. These alarms can alert caregivers when a patient tries to leave a designated area, helping to keep them safe. It is crucial to respond promptly to these alarms to ensure the patient's safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each type of alarm plays a vital role in a comprehensive wandering prevention strategy.
The BRAT diet is often prescribed for patients with gastroenteritis. This acronym stands for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The BRAT diet, which stands for Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast, is commonly recommended for patients with gastroenteritis. These easily digestible foods help firm up stools due to their low fiber content and provide essential nutrients lost during vomiting and diarrhea. Choice B is incorrect because it includes apricots, which are not part of the traditional BRAT diet. Choice C is incorrect as it includes rolls, which are not typically included in the BRAT diet. Choice D is incorrect as it includes tapioca, which is not part of the traditional BRAT diet. Therefore, the correct answer is Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast.
Which of the following components is associated with hypertonic dehydration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Water loss is greater than electrolyte loss.' In hypertonic dehydration, there is a higher loss of water compared to electrolytes, leading to elevated concentrations of electrolytes in the body. This condition is characterized by plasma sodium levels above 150 mEq/L. As water moves from the extracellular space to the intracellular space, it results in cellular dehydration. Choice A is incorrect because the plasma sodium levels associated with hypertonic dehydration are typically above 150 mEq/L, not between 130 and 150 mEq/L. Choice B is incorrect as fluid moves from the extracellular space to the intracellular space in hypertonic dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because physical signs and symptoms may not always be grossly apparent in hypertonic dehydration.
During a health history assessment of a new patient, which data should be the focus for patient teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is saturated fat intake. Behaviors play a crucial role in health outcomes, and saturated fat intake is a modifiable behavior that can significantly impact a patient's health. By focusing on educating the patient about reducing saturated fat intake, the healthcare provider can empower the patient to make positive changes. While age, gender, ethnicity, and family history are important factors in understanding a patient's health status, they are not behaviors that can be directly modified through patient teaching. Therefore, these factors are essential for developing an individualized care plan but are not the primary focus of patient teaching. Saturated fat intake directly relates to dietary habits, which can be altered through education and support to promote better health outcomes.
A patient with peripheral vascular disease is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following information should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients with peripheral vascular disease should be advised to avoid crossing their legs as this can impede blood flow. Peripheral vascular disease, also known as arteriosclerosis obliterans, is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis results in the gradual progression of arterial occlusion due to the formation of atheromas. Crossed legs can further restrict blood flow, exacerbating the condition. Walking barefoot should be discouraged to prevent potential injuries to the feet. Using a heating pad can lead to burns and should be avoided to prevent thermal injuries. While using antibacterial ointment for skin lesions may be beneficial, it is not the priority instruction for patients with peripheral vascular disease.
Which of the following is an example of libel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Libel involves making defamatory statements against another person in written form. These statements can harm the person's reputation or feelings. In this scenario, the correct answer is when a client reads disparaging remarks that a nurse has written about him in his chart. This constitutes libel because the negative remarks are written down and can potentially damage the client's reputation. Choices A, C, and D do not involve libel. Choice A describes a verbal statement, not written, so it does not constitute libel. Choice C involves a failure to notify a physician, which is a different issue unrelated to libel. Choice D pertains to administering medication without an order, which is a matter of improper practice rather than libel.
Which of the following is an example of restorative care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Restorative care involves assisting clients in regaining or maintaining their highest possible level of function. This type of care focuses on promoting self-care and independence by helping clients perform activities that enhance their functional abilities. In this scenario, a nurse who assists a client with developing a bladder-retraining program is engaging in restorative care by helping the client regain bladder function. Choices A, C, and D do not represent restorative care. Teaching a new mother how to breastfeed her infant (Choice A) is an example of educative care, placing an allergy wristband (Choice C) is a safety measure, and contacting a client's family to update them on surgery (Choice D) is related to communication and support, not restorative care.
The nurse is discussing the need for early diagnosis and treatment of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) with parents of children suspected of having the condition. Which statement should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement for the nurse to include is that early diagnosis and treatment provide the best chance for the child to become a fully functioning adult. It is important to educate parents that while early intervention can improve outcomes for individuals with ASD, it does not offer a cure but helps in managing symptoms and developing necessary skills. Choice A is incorrect as there is currently no cure for ASD. Choice C is inaccurate as early diagnosis and treatment focus on improving the child's quality of life and independence rather than ensuring admission to an assisted living facility. Choice D is incorrect as early diagnosis and treatment of ASD do not prevent the development of other mental health conditions; however, they can help in identifying and managing such conditions early on.
Which of the following is an example of whistle-blowing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Whistle-blowing involves notifying administration or a supervisor about unethical or illegal activities. In this scenario, the nurse reporting a colleague taking supplies for personal use is an example of whistle-blowing as it involves reporting behavior that is dishonest and potentially harmful. Choices B, C, and D do not represent whistle-blowing. Choice B involves a legal action by a client against a nurse, choice C is a situation where immediate care is provided, and choice D is a case of neglect that should have been prevented.
Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.
A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.
Research participants are involved in a trial that incidentally separates them into two groups. One group receives an intervention, while the other group does not. Both groups are compared for outcomes. What type of research method is this?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A randomized controlled trial is a research method in which participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment or control group. This design helps eliminate bias and allows for the comparison of outcomes between the two groups. In this scenario, where participants are separated into intervention and non-intervention groups for comparison, it aligns with the characteristics of a randomized controlled trial. The key feature distinguishing it from the other options is the random assignment of participants to groups, ensuring that both groups are comparable at the start of the study. Double-blind experiments involve blinding both participants and researchers to treatment allocation, which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Experimental design refers to a broader category that includes various types of research designs beyond just randomized controlled trials. Repeated measures design involves collecting multiple observations from the same participants over time, which is not the case described in the scenario.
Mrs. M has had diabetes for seven years. She has worked hard to control her blood glucose levels and watch her dietary intake. Her physician orders a hemoglobin A1C test. Which of the following best describes the action of this test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A hemoglobin A1C test, also known as a glycated hemoglobin test, determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose. Excess glucose in the bloodstream may cause it to attach to hemoglobin on red blood cells. Because the life of these cells is between 2 and 3 months, the hemoglobin A1C is an accurate measurement of a client's glucose during that time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A relates to anemia and iron supplements, which are not assessed by a hemoglobin A1C test. Choice B mentions excess glucose in the urine, which is typically assessed through a urine glucose test, not the hemoglobin A1C test. Choice C is incorrect as the test is not related to the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis; instead, it specifically measures the amount of hemoglobin that is glycated or coated with glucose.
Which of the following interventions is necessary before insertion of an arterial line into the radial artery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before inserting an arterial line into the radial artery, it is crucial to perform an Allen test. The Allen test assesses the collateral circulation to the hand by compressing both the radial and ulnar arteries. By occluding the radial artery and releasing the ulnar artery, the nurse can check if the ulnar artery can adequately supply blood to the hand if the radial artery is cannulated. This step ensures that there is adequate circulation to the hand post-insertion of the arterial line. Choice A, ensuring that the client does not need surgery, is not directly related to the insertion of an arterial line and is not a necessary step before the procedure. Choice B, assessing grip strength, is not specific to the vascular status of the hand and does not provide information about the adequacy of collateral circulation. Choice D, checking a serum potassium level, is unrelated to the assessment of radial artery patency and collateral circulation, which are the primary concerns before arterial line insertion.
A client is preparing to undergo a cystoscopy for stones. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, 'I will probably see a little blood when I urinate.' During a cystoscopy, a scope is inserted into the client's bladder to inspect structures or remove objects like stones. This procedure is usually performed under local or general anesthesia. It is common for clients to experience a small amount of blood in their urine (hematuria) or have pink-colored urine after the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because drinking a lot of fluid before the test, staying in the hospital for 3 days, and assuming no pain will be experienced are not accurate statements related to a cystoscopy procedure.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.