Free ATI LPN Capstone practice for PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN (ATI LPN). Answer 64 nursing exam-style questions with rat
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
A client with a new ileostomy is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Ileostomy stomas typically drain liquid continuously, unlike colostomies. This continuous drainage is a key characteristic that clients should understand postoperatively. Choice A is incorrect because ensuring medications are enteric-coated is not directly related to understanding ileostomy care. Choice C is incorrect as changing the pouch system every two weeks is not a general rule and may vary depending on the individual's needs. Choice D is incorrect because the stoma size can change during the healing process and clients should be informed about this possibility.
A nurse is assessing a client 1 hour after birth and notes a boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus. What should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A boggy uterus located 2 cm above the umbilicus suggests uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The initial intervention in this situation is to massage the fundus. Fundal massage helps the uterus contract, promoting hemostasis and preventing excessive bleeding. Taking vital signs or assessing lochia are important actions but are secondary to addressing uterine atony. Administering oxytocin IV bolus is often done after fundal massage to further enhance uterine contractions.
A nurse is planning care to prevent complications in a client with immobility. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because removing anti-embolism stockings for short periods prevents skin breakdown while ensuring that the stockings remain effective in promoting circulation. Choice A is incorrect because massaging lower extremities daily does not prevent DVT; instead, it may dislodge a clot. Choice C is incorrect as limiting intake of foods high in calcium does not prevent renal calculi; rather, it may help reduce the risk of kidney stones. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to lie supine does not prevent constipation; instead, encouraging mobility and adequate fluid intake can help prevent constipation in immobile clients.
A nurse is developing discharge care plans for a client who has osteoporosis. To prevent injury, the nurse should instruct the client to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises strengthen bones and help prevent fractures, which is crucial for clients with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline and avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods are general recommendations for preventing musculoskeletal issues but are not specific to osteoporosis. Splinting the affected area is not a standard practice for managing osteoporosis and preventing fractures.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine for severe pain. What is the priority assessment the professional should make before administration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before administering morphine, the priority assessment the healthcare professional should make is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, so assessing the respiratory rate is crucial to prevent any potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature are important as well, but they are not the priority when administering morphine for severe pain.
A client is newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and prescribed levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction is to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach. This is necessary for proper absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Taking it with food can interfere with absorption. Timing is also crucial; it is usually recommended to take levothyroxine in the morning to prevent potential interactions with food and other medications throughout the day. Taking the medication in the evening may lead to sleep disturbances. Lastly, waiting to take the medication only when symptoms occur is not appropriate as levothyroxine is typically taken regularly to maintain thyroid hormone levels within the body.
A client is receiving morphine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving morphine, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial because morphine can cause respiratory depression. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because morphine primarily affects the respiratory system, not the liver function, blood glucose levels, or bowel sounds.
A nurse working in a mobile health clinic is assessing a migrant farm worker. What finding should the nurse identify as a priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Muscle twitching and a skin rash may indicate exposure to pesticides, which requires immediate intervention due to potential toxicity. Fatigue and fever (Choice A) are non-specific symptoms that may indicate various conditions but do not directly indicate pesticide exposure. Blurred vision (Choice C) and nasal congestion (Choice D) are also non-specific symptoms and are less likely to be related to pesticide exposure compared to muscle twitching and a skin rash.
When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.
A nurse on an acute med-surgical unit is performing assessments on a group of clients. Which is the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A positive Trousseau's sign indicates hypocalcemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications like tetany or laryngospasm, making it the highest priority. Choices B, C, and D, while important, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential complications of severe hypocalcemia seen in a client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and a positive Trousseau's sign.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram. Amitriptyline can cause cardiac arrhythmias, so an electrocardiogram is necessary before starting treatment. A hearing examination (choice A) is not required before initiating amitriptyline. A glucose tolerance test (choice B) is not indicated for starting this medication. Pulmonary function tests (choice D) are not necessary before initiating amitriptyline for depression.
A client is being educated by a nurse on how to use a PCA pump postoperatively. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. This statement indicates understanding because the client recognizes that they should use the PCA pump when they start to feel pain. Waiting for the pain to become severe is not recommended as it may lead to inadequate pain control. Option B is incorrect because only the client should control the PCA pump to ensure safety and appropriate dosing. Option D is also incorrect as there is no set limit on how often the button can be pressed, as it should be used as needed when pain is felt.
A healthcare provider is reviewing a prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which instruction should the healthcare provider provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed with doxazosin is to rise slowly when sitting up. Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness upon sudden position changes. Instructing the client to rise slowly helps prevent this side effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the potential side effects or administration of doxazosin.
What is the first action when a client who is admitted with schizophrenia reports hearing voices telling them to harm themselves?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action when a client with schizophrenia reports hearing voices telling them to harm themselves is to ask the client what the voices are saying. This is important to assess the content of the hallucinations and determine if there is any immediate danger or suicidal intent. Administering antipsychotic medication without knowing the content of the voices or the level of danger could be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Distracting the client with another activity may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations commanding harm. Calling the healthcare provider can be done after assessing the situation and gathering information from the client.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Therefore, one of the main adverse effects of clopidogrel is an increased risk of bleeding. Insomnia (Choice A), hypotension (Choice B), and constipation (Choice D) are not commonly associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial when a client is taking clopidogrel.
A nurse is teaching postoperative care to the parents of a toddler following a cleft palate repair. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Elbow splints are utilized to prevent the child from touching the surgical site. However, it is essential to remove them periodically to conduct range-of-motion exercises to prevent joint stiffness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because providing an orthodontic pacifier, offering fluids using a straw, and cleansing the suture line with a cotton-tip swab are not directly related to postoperative care following a cleft palate repair.
A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which action should the nurse take when toxicity occurs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When toxicity from magnesium sulfate occurs, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate IV as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Positioning the client supine may not address the toxicity issue. Administering dextrose 5% is not the appropriate intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg indicates hypercapnia, which is common in clients with emphysema but may require further treatment if it leads to respiratory acidosis or distress. Elevated PaCO2 levels can indicate inadequate ventilation and impaired gas exchange, potentially leading to respiratory acidosis. The other results fall within normal ranges or compensated values for a client with chronic emphysema and do not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention.
A client is being taught about the use of levothyroxine. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Take it at the same time every day.' It is important to take levothyroxine consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because stopping levothyroxine suddenly can lead to adverse effects due to sudden changes in hormone levels. Choice D is also incorrect as hyperglycemia is not a common side effect associated with levothyroxine.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Eye exams. Hydroxychloroquine can cause retinal damage, making it essential for the nurse to monitor the client's eyes regularly for any changes. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), or complete blood count (choice D) are not directly associated with the potential side effects of hydroxychloroquine.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enalapril. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to manage hypertension. It is crucial to evaluate the patient's blood pressure before administering enalapril to ensure it is within safe limits. Assessing other parameters like heart rate, serum creatinine, and potassium levels is also important but assessing blood pressure takes precedence due to the medication's mechanism of action and potential effects on blood pressure regulation.
A nurse working in a mental health facility observes a client who has bipolar disorder walk over to a table occupied by other clients and knock their game off the table. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering to go for a walk with the client helps redirect their energy in a non-confrontational way, avoiding escalation of aggressive behavior while promoting de-escalation.
A nurse is assessing a client with suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Pain radiating to the left arm. This is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction and indicates possible heart involvement. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pain relieved by rest, pain worsened with breathing, and pain relieved by antacids are not typical symptoms of myocardial infarction. These findings do not raise the same level of concern as pain radiating to the left arm and are less indicative of cardiac involvement.
A nurse is preparing to perform closed intermittent bladder irrigation for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following actions is appropriate by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take before performing a closed intermittent bladder irrigation is to apply sterile gloves. Sterile gloves help maintain asepsis, reduce the risk of infection, and ensure patient safety during the procedure. Aspirating the irrigation solution from the bladder (Choice A) is not a standard step in closed intermittent bladder irrigation. Inserting the tip of the irrigation syringe into the catheter opening (Choice B) can introduce contaminants into the system. Opening the flow clamp to the irrigating fluid infusion tubing (Choice D) should only be done after ensuring all equipment is ready and the nurse is gloved to maintain sterility.
A client wearing an arm cast reports numb fingers. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the client's circulation. Numbness in the fingers may indicate compromised circulation or nerve damage. By assessing the circulation first, the nurse can ensure that the cast is not too tight, which could be cutting off blood flow. Option A is incorrect because placing the arm in a dependent position may worsen circulation issues. Option B is incorrect as administering pain medication does not address the underlying cause of numbness. Option D is incorrect as applying a warm compress could mask circulation issues and is not the priority in this situation.
A nurse is assessing a male adolescent client who has heart failure. Based on the client's chart, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to manage fluid retention, helping alleviate symptoms like edema and shortness of breath. Withholding spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, could lead to electrolyte imbalances. Administering ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia, not heart failure. Withholding digoxin, a medication used in heart failure to improve heart function, can worsen the client's condition.
A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement indicates an understanding of advance directives because advance directives allow individuals to express their treatment preferences, including the right to refuse treatment if they choose to do so. Choice A is incorrect because individuals can update or change their advance directives as needed. Choice B is incorrect because advance directives are based on the individual's preferences, not the doctor's approval. Choice C is incorrect as witnessing an advance directive typically requires a witness who is not an attorney, depending on the state's specific requirements.
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of heroin use who is intoxicated. Which finding should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Constricted pupils. Constricted pupils are a classic sign of opioid intoxication, including heroin. Opioids like heroin cause the pupils to constrict due to their effect on the autonomic nervous system. Dilated pupils, increased reflexes, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with opioid intoxication but may be seen with other substances or conditions.
A nurse is caring for a client who has liver cirrhosis and ascites. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor the effectiveness of the treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Measuring the client's abdominal girth daily is the most effective way to monitor the reduction of ascites and fluid retention in clients with liver cirrhosis. This measurement helps assess the effectiveness of treatment in managing ascites by monitoring changes in abdominal size. Monitoring the client's hemoglobin level (Choice B) is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of ascites treatment. Administering lactulose as prescribed (Choice C) is important in managing hepatic encephalopathy, not ascites. Weighing the client weekly (Choice D) may not provide real-time feedback on the reduction of ascites compared to daily abdominal girth measurements.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.
A nurse is planning care for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should wear a dosimeter badge to monitor radiation exposure when caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, as both medications affect clotting. The client should use alternative pain relievers like acetaminophen. Choice B is correct as using an electric razor is a safe choice to prevent cuts that could lead to bleeding. Choice C is correct as warfarin interacts with vitamin K found in leafy green vegetables. Choice D is correct as regular blood level checks are necessary to monitor the effects and adjust the warfarin dosage if needed.
When teaching a client about the use of trazodone, what should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Trazodone can cause sedation, so clients should be cautioned about activities requiring alertness, like driving. Choice B is incorrect because trazodone is not a stimulant; it is actually a sedating antidepressant. Choice C is incorrect as all medications have potential side effects. Choice D is not specifically indicated for trazodone; the client should follow the prescribing healthcare provider's instructions regarding food intake.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed gabapentin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Renal function. Gabapentin is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so monitoring renal function is essential to ensure the drug is being cleared effectively from the body. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A) is not a priority for gabapentin as it is not primarily metabolized by the liver. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are not directly impacted by gabapentin. Cardiac rhythm (choice D) monitoring is not typically necessary for clients on gabapentin unless they have pre-existing cardiac conditions that may be exacerbated by the medication.
When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client's history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.
When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed long-term prednisone therapy. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Stress fractures. Long-term prednisone therapy can lead to osteoporosis, which increases the risk of stress fractures. Option B, orthostatic hypotension, is not a common adverse effect associated with prednisone use. Option C, gingival ulcerations, is more commonly associated with conditions like periodontal disease or poor oral hygiene rather than prednisone therapy. Option D, weight loss, is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common due to prednisone's impact on metabolism.
A healthcare provider is educating a patient on the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Take it once a week.' Alendronate is typically taken once a week to treat osteoporosis. It should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning with a full glass of water. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice D is unrelated to alendronate use and not a common side effect associated with this medication.
A client with mild persistent asthma is being taught about montelukast by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'This medication will decrease swelling and mucus production.' Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that works by reducing swelling and mucus production in the airways, helping to manage asthma symptoms in the long term. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because montelukast is not used for immediate relief during asthma attacks, pre-exercise prophylaxis, or short-term treatment; instead, it is taken regularly for asthma control.
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.
A nurse is observing bonding between the client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative indicates a negative interaction with the newborn and suggests impaired bonding, which requires intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of impaired bonding. Holding the newborn in an en face position is a positive way to bond with the baby. Asking the father to change the diaper shows involvement of both parents in caring for the newborn, which is beneficial for bonding. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so the mother can rest is a normal request and does not necessarily indicate impaired bonding.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a urinary tract infection and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Phenazopyridine can turn the urine orange, which is a normal side effect and not a cause for alarm. The client's statement about notifying the provider immediately if their urine turns orange indicates a need for further teaching because it shows a misunderstanding of the medication's side effects. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate a good understanding of the prescribed medications and their effects, indicating the client has grasped the teaching provided on those aspects.
A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.
A nurse should teach which of the following clients requiring crutches about how to use a three-point gait?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because a three-point gait is used when the client can bear full weight on one foot and uses crutches and the uninvolved leg to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for using a three-point gait. Choice A states that the client can bear full weight on both lower extremities, which does not require a three-point gait. Choice B mentions bilateral leg braces due to paralysis, which would not involve using a three-point gait. Choice D describes a client with bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing, which also does not align with the use of a three-point gait.
A nurse is caring for a client recovering from bowel surgery who has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that the NG tube may not be functioning properly?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abdominal rigidity can indicate a serious complication, such as a blockage or infection, requiring immediate intervention to determine if the NG tube is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a malfunctioning NG tube. Greenish-yellow drainage fluid may be normal, an aspirate pH of 3 is within the expected range for gastric contents, and air bubbles in the NG tube are not abnormal as long as they are moving.
A client is being taught how to use a PCA pump postoperatively. Which statement indicates understanding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because the client should press the PCA pump button when they start to feel pain. This approach helps maintain pain control effectively. Choice A is incorrect because waiting for the pain to become severe before using the PCA pump can lead to inadequate pain management. Choice B is incorrect because only the client should operate the PCA pump to ensure the correct dosage is administered. Choice D is incorrect because the client should press the button as needed when experiencing pain, rather than limiting its use to once per hour.
A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an influenza vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Client is allergic to eggs. The influenza vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an allergy to eggs because some influenza vaccines are produced using egg-based processes. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for administering the influenza vaccine. A low-grade fever, recent surgery, and corticosteroid therapy are not contraindications for receiving the influenza vaccine.
A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.
A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.
A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is disoriented and has a history of falls. What actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the correct actions for the nurse to take involve ensuring patient safety and fall prevention measures. Choice B is the correct answer because instructing the patient to use the call light allows them to signal for help, applying an ambulation alarm helps detect movement, and checking on the patient hourly increases monitoring frequency. These actions are essential for preventing falls in a disoriented patient with a history of falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A does not provide adequate monitoring or fall prevention measures, C relies solely on assigning a sitter without utilizing technological aids, and D lacks continuous monitoring and specific fall prevention strategies.
A client is experiencing suicidal thoughts and states, 'Why not end my misery?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Do you have a plan to end your life?' When a client expresses suicidal thoughts, it is crucial to assess the immediate risk. Inquiring about a specific plan can help determine the seriousness of the situation. Choice A is less direct and may not provide a clear indication of the immediate risk. Choice C focuses on the interpretation of 'misery' rather than assessing the risk of suicide. Choice D offers support but does not address the critical assessment of the client's immediate safety.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.
A nurse is teaching a client with mild persistent asthma who has been prescribed montelukast. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'This medication helps decrease swelling and mucus production.' Montelukast is used for long-term asthma management as it helps reduce inflammation and mucus production in the airways. It is not appropriate for acute asthma attacks. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not a rescue medication for acute attacks. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not specifically taken before exercise. Choice C is incorrect because montelukast is usually taken regularly, not just for a short duration.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a femur fracture and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Severe pain that is not relieved by analgesics may indicate neurovascular compromise or other complications and requires immediate attention by the provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clear fluid drainage from the pin sites is expected in skeletal traction, intermittent muscle spasms are common in this situation, and traction weights hanging freely indicate proper traction alignment.
A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which laboratory value would indicate the need for hemodialysis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A GFR of 14 mL/min indicates significant kidney damage and a severe decrease in kidney function. This level of GFR typically indicates the need for hemodialysis to help the kidneys perform their function adequately. BUN, serum magnesium, and serum phosphorus levels are important in assessing kidney function and managing chronic kidney disease but do not specifically indicate the need for hemodialysis. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.
A nurse on a pediatric care unit is delegating client care. Which of the following tasks should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because transporting a stable child to x-ray is a task that can be safely delegated to an assistive personnel. This task does not require clinical judgment or specialized skills. Choices A, B, and C involve assessments and interventions that require nursing judgment and should be performed by a qualified nurse. Initiating a dietary consult for a toddler involves assessing the child's nutritional needs and must be done by a nurse. Administering a glycerin suppository to a preschool-age child requires medication administration skills and knowledge of appropriate dosages, which are within the nurse's scope of practice. Evaluating gastric residual following intermittent feeding of an adolescent is a clinical assessment that requires interpretation and decision-making based on the findings, making it a nursing responsibility.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Candidiasis is a type of superinfection that can occur when antibiotics, like tetracycline, disrupt the normal flora, allowing overgrowth of fungi. Option A, allergic response, is incorrect because candidiasis is not typically an allergic reaction. Option C, renal toxicity, and option D, hepatotoxicity, are incorrect as they refer to adverse effects on the kidneys and liver, respectively, which are not directly related to the development of candidiasis.
A menopausal client is having difficulty getting to sleep and asks what actions she should incorporate into her daily routine to promote sleep. The nurse would encourage which of the following measures to promote sleep?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Limit alcohol and nicotine prior to bedtime. Alcohol and nicotine are stimulants that can disrupt sleep patterns, so avoiding them before bedtime can promote better sleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Consuming a warm drink at bedtime may lead to frequent urination, disrupting sleep; taking an evening walk before bedtime may increase alertness rather than inducing sleep; and taking an afternoon nap can make it harder to fall asleep at night.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning. This medication is usually advised to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide should be taken daily as prescribed, not as needed for edema. Option B is incorrect as monitoring weight weekly may not be specifically related to hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Option C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.
A provider has written a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for a client who is comatose and does not have advance directives. A member of the client's family says, 'I wonder when the doctor will tell us what's going on.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take first is to ask the family what the provider has discussed with them. This allows the nurse to clarify any misunderstandings and ensures that the family is fully informed before providing further information. Option A is not the best choice because it assumes the need for more information without first understanding what has already been communicated. Option B is premature as the family may not be ready for grief counseling at this stage. Option C, although a good general practice, is not the most appropriate immediate action in this situation where clarifying existing information is crucial.
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