Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is the positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom?

• A. Electron
• B. Proton
• C. Neutron
• D. Quark

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Protons are positively charged subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit (amu) and a charge of +1. The number of protons in an atom's nucleus determines the atomic number of the element, which is a unique identifier for each element.

2. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a population that is:

• A. Undergoing rapid evolution due to strong directional selection.
• B. Not evolving and at genetic equilibrium with stable allele frequencies.
• C. Experiencing a founder effect leading to a reduction in genetic diversity.
• D. Dominated by a single homozygous genotype that eliminates all variation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a theoretical population in which allele frequencies remain constant from generation to generation, indicating that the population is not evolving. This equilibrium occurs under specific conditions: no mutation, no gene flow, random mating, a large population size, and no natural selection. In this scenario, all genotypes are in proportion to the allele frequencies, and genetic diversity is maintained. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option A suggests rapid evolution due to strong directional selection, which would disrupt the equilibrium. Option C mentions a founder effect, which can reduce genetic diversity but is not a characteristic of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Option D describes a population dominated by a single homozygous genotype, which also does not align with the genetic diversity seen in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

3. What is the name of the master gland that regulates the function of many other endocrine glands?

• A. Thyroid gland
• B. Pituitary gland
• C. Hypothalamus
• D. Adrenal gland

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is often referred to as the 'master gland' because it plays a crucial role in regulating the function of many other endocrine glands in the body. It secretes hormones that control various processes such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction. The thyroid gland (A) primarily regulates metabolism, the hypothalamus (C) helps control the pituitary gland, and the adrenal gland (D) produces hormones involved in stress response. Therefore, the pituitary gland is the main gland responsible for coordinating the activities of other endocrine glands, earning it the title of the master gland.

4. The resolution of an optical instrument, like a microscope, refers to its ability to distinguish between:

• A. Different colors of light
• B. The presence or absence of light
• C. Variations in intensity
• D. Very close, nearly identical objects

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The resolution of an optical instrument, such as a microscope, is its ability to distinguish between very close, nearly identical objects. This means that the instrument can differentiate between two points that are close together and appear almost as one. A higher resolution allows for clearer and sharper images by minimizing the blurring effect that occurs when objects are close together. Options A, B, and C do not directly relate to the concept of resolution in optical instruments. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it best describes what resolution entails in this context.

5. A new invention claims to solve the energy crisis. What criteria should you use to evaluate this claim?

• A. The inventor's qualifications and credentials.
• B. The technology's cost-effectiveness and affordability.
• C. Evidence of independent testing and scientific validation.
• D. Testimonials from celebrities and public figures.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When evaluating a claim about solving the energy crisis, it is crucial to look for evidence of independent testing and scientific validation. This ensures that the technology has been rigorously assessed and verified by experts in the field, providing credibility to the invention's effectiveness. Testimonials from celebrities and public figures (option D) may not provide reliable information about the technology's actual capabilities. The inventor's qualifications and credentials (option A) are important but do not guarantee the technology's success. Cost-effectiveness and affordability (option B) are significant factors but should be considered alongside scientific validation to assess the overall impact and feasibility of the invention.

6. What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

• A. Active immunity is short-lived, while passive immunity is long-lasting.
• B. Active immunity involves the body's own immune response, while passive immunity provides immediate protection through antibodies from another source.
• C. Active immunity only protects against bacterial infections, while passive immunity works against both bacteria and viruses.
• D. Passive immunity requires repeated vaccinations, while active immunity is a one-time process.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Active immunity involves the body's own immune response, while passive immunity provides immediate protection through antibodies from another source." Active immunity is long-lasting because it involves the body's immune system producing memory cells that remember specific pathogens, providing long-term protection. Passive immunity, on the other hand, is short-lived as it involves receiving pre-formed antibodies from an external source, such as through maternal transfer or injection of antibodies, which do not create memory cells for long-lasting protection.

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