Free PN Psychosocial Integrity practice for Nclex Practice Questions 2024 (NCLEX PN). Answer 54 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and pro
When supporting a family who has just experienced a sudden and unexpected death, the nurse needs to know:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is that survivors have greater emotional turmoil and shock than when death is expected. Sudden death produces more emotional turmoil and shock in survivors compared to gradual, expected death. Survivors of sudden death do not have the opportunity to engage in anticipatory grief. The unexpectedness of sudden death is the most disturbing and unbalancing factor, leading to heightened emotional turmoil and shock. Choice B is incorrect as survivors of sudden death experience more emotional turmoil and shock. Choice C is incorrect because sudden death brings about a different level of emotional turmoil and shock. Choice D is incorrect as survivors of sudden and unexpected death still go through significant emotional distress.
What is the primary goal of family education?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary goal of family education is to improve the quality of life. Family education aims to enhance the overall well-being and functioning of both the individual with the condition and their family members. While increased knowledge about mental illness may be a beneficial outcome, it is not the primary objective of family education. Symptom reduction is more commonly associated with psychoeducation rather than family education. Improving caregiving skills is a component of family education, but the primary focus is on improving the quality of life for everyone involved in the caregiving process.
A healthcare provider is preparing to assess the acoustic nerve during a neurological examination. To assess this nerve, the provider uses which technique?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Testing of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve) involves assessing hearing acuity through techniques like the whispered voice test and tuning fork tests (Weber and Rinne). Using a tuning fork helps determine if sound lateralizes to one ear (Weber) and compares air conduction to bone conduction (Rinne). Asking the client to puff out the cheeks is for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function evaluation. Testing taste perception on the tongue assesses cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) function. Checking the ability to clench teeth assesses cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) motor function.
Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.
An adolescent female reports being raped at a party where alcohol was served. The client admits to drinking alcohol before being raped by an acquaintance. The nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of rape, it is crucial to provide support and reassurance to the victim. The nurse should inform the client that it was not her fault and offer support through the physical examination. Blaming the victim, as in choice A, is inappropriate and can be damaging to the client's well-being. Choice B is not the priority at this moment; the immediate focus should be on supporting the client. Choice D is victim-blaming and implies doubt about the client's report, which is harmful and not supportive. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment for the client to facilitate healing and recovery.
The physician has prescribed tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) 10mg bid. The nurse should teach the client to refrain from eating foods containing tyramine because it may cause:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
If the client eats foods high in tyramine, he might experience malignant hypertension. Tyramine is found in cheese, sour cream, Chianti wine, sherry, beer, pickled herring, liver, canned figs, raisins, bananas, avocados, chocolate, soy sauce, fava beans, and yeast. These episodes are treated with Regitine, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated to the question: Hyperthermia is excessive body temperature, melanoma is a type of skin cancer, and urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder.
A 6-year-old with cerebral palsy functions at the level of an 18-month-old. Which finding would support that assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'She pulls a toy behind her.' This behavior is consistent with the developmental stage of an 18-month-old who enjoys push-pull toys. Dressing oneself usually begins around 3 years old, building a tower of eight blocks at approximately 3 years old, and copying a horizontal or vertical line at about 4 years old. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they represent skills that are typically observed in older children.
The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the bladder wall leading to bleeding. To prevent this complication, the client should drink at least eight glasses of water a day. Walking to prevent calcium loss (choice A) and increasing fiber intake (choice B) are not directly related to the side effects of Cytoxan, making them unnecessary instructions in this case. While nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy, the immediate reporting of nausea to the doctor (choice C) is important but not specifically related to the use of Cytoxan in this scenario.
A client reports that someone is in the room and trying to kill him. The nurse's best response is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client reports hallucinations or delusions, it is crucial to respond in a non-confrontational and empathetic manner. Choice B acknowledges the client's fear without confirming the delusion, showing understanding, and providing reassurance. This response validates the client's feelings without reinforcing the false belief. The other responses in choices A, C, and D dismiss the client's feelings or perceptions, which can escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship.
As a type of quality indicator, an example of a structure standard is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'a written philosophy.' Structure standards define the conditions needed to operate a system and do not directly involve client care. Examples include philosophy, objectives, goals, hours of operation, and management responsibility. Choices B, C, and D involve specific procedures and protocols related to client care, which are not structure standards.
When teaching clients with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia nearing discharge from a residential care facility, what is an essential topic to include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When educating clients with Schizophrenia nearing discharge, it is crucial to focus on teaching them how to recognize and manage symptoms of relapse. Clients are usually aware of these symptoms, such as feeling anxious and overwhelmed, before the onset of psychosis. This early stage is vital for intervention, which involves finding a safe environment, seeking help, avoiding stressors, and reducing stimuli. Understanding and managing relapse symptoms empower clients to take proactive steps in their care. Choices A and C are not as immediate and practical as recognizing symptoms of relapse for client safety and well-being. While contact with follow-up care is important, it is not as urgent and specific as knowing how to manage relapse symptoms for immediate intervention.
Incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Child abuse is often associated with lower socioeconomic status and single-parent households due to increased stress and fewer support systems. Choice A is correct as single-parent households can face more challenges leading to a higher risk of child abuse. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the risk factors associated with child abuse. Choice C is incorrect because there is no direct correlation between stricter child-rearing practices and child abuse rates. Choice D is incorrect because attributing child abuse to a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans is a stereotype and lacks evidence.
When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.
During the history assessment of an 80-year-old client, which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is "I often use a laxative for constipation." Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss, indicating a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statements A, C, and D are not directly related to fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statement A about dry skin may suggest dehydration, but it is less specific to electrolyte imbalance than the frequent use of laxatives. Statement C about drinking a lot of iced tea could potentially relate to fluid intake, but it doesn't directly indicate an imbalance. Statement D about dribbling urine is more indicative of a potential urinary issue rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
The client is admitted to the unit after a cholecystectomy. Montgomery straps are utilized with this client. The nurse is aware that Montgomery straps are utilized on this client because:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Montgomery straps are used to secure dressings that require frequent changes due to the large amount of drainage usually present after a cholecystectomy. They are also beneficial for clients allergic to various types of tape. Answer A is incorrect as the client is not at higher risk of evisceration. Answer C is incorrect because Montgomery straps are not used to support drains. Answer D is incorrect as sutures or clips are typically used to secure the incision after gallbladder surgery, not Montgomery straps.
After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate action after discussing the problem with the nurse is to document the incident and file a formal reprimand. Reporting to the Board of Nursing may be necessary if the behavior persists or harm occurs to the client, but it is not the initial step. Termination should be considered if the issue continues despite warnings. Charging the nurse with a tort is not a suitable course of action in this situation as a tort refers to a wrongful act against a client or their belongings, not an appropriate disciplinary measure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery (answer B) should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia. This nurse has the most relevant experience and knowledge of possible complications associated with preeclampsia due to their background in labor and delivery. Assigning a nurse with only 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit (answer A) would not be suitable for handling the complexities of caring for a client with preeclampsia. Nurses with experience in surgery (answer C) or the neonatal intensive care unit (answer D) lack the specific expertise needed for managing a postpartal client with preeclampsia, making them unsuitable choices for this assignment.
The nurse is assigned to care for an infant with physiologic jaundice. Which action by the nurse would facilitate elimination of the bilirubin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bilirubin is excreted through the kidneys, therefore increasing fluid intake can help facilitate its elimination. Maintaining the infant's body temperature is important for overall health but does not directly assist in eliminating bilirubin, making choice B incorrect. Choices C and D are irrelevant to bilirubin elimination in this scenario and do not address the specific issue of physiologic jaundice.
The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a client 2 days post-thoracotomy because this client is the most critical and requires the expertise of a registered nurse. Clients A and B are stable and ready for discharge after their respective surgeries (appendectomy and thyroidectomy). Client C, who is 3 days post-splenectomy, is also stable enough to be cared for by a licensed practical nurse as they are in a stable condition and do not have immediate critical needs. Therefore, the registered nurse should care for the client 2 days post-thoracotomy due to the critical nature of the procedure and the immediate postoperative care required.
Which of the following coping mechanisms protects an individual from anxiety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'denial and fantasy.' Denial involves blocking external events from awareness to avoid anxiety, while fantasy is escaping to a more comfortable, less threatening place. These mechanisms can protect individuals from anxiety by providing temporary relief or distraction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rationalization and suppression do not directly protect individuals from anxiety. Regression and displacement involve reverting to earlier developmental stages or redirecting emotions to a substitute target, which do not directly shield individuals from anxiety. Reaction formation and projection entail behaving in the opposite way to one's impulses or attributing one's feelings to others respectively, which do not directly protect individuals from anxiety.
A nurse provides information about feeding to the mother of a 6-month-old infant. Which statement by the mother indicates an understanding of the information?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Egg white should not be given to my infant because of the risk for an allergy.' Egg white, even in small quantities, is not recommended for infants until the end of the first year of life due to its common allergenic potential. Choice A is incorrect because while meats are important for iron, they are not typically introduced to infants until around 6-8 months. Choice C is incorrect because food should never be mixed with formula in the bottle as it may lead to feeding difficulties and inaccurate monitoring of intake. Choice D is incorrect because fluoride supplementation may be required around 6 months depending on the infant's fluoride intake from water. Introducing solid foods like rice cereal, fruits, or vegetables is usually done around 5-6 months, following healthcare provider recommendations.
A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.
A 32-year-old female frequently comes to her primary care provider with vague complaints of headache, abdominal pain, and trouble sleeping. In the past, the physician has dutifully prescribed medication, but little else. Which of the following comments by the nurse to the physician is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is, "Often women who are victims of domestic violence suffer vague symptoms such as abdominal pain."? There is a well-documented correlation between vague symptoms like abdominal pain and battered woman syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to inquire about potential domestic violence when presented with such symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as studies show that women are not generally offended by appropriately phrased questions about their safety in relationships. While it is not mandatory to question all women about domestic violence, it is advisable to at least ask a screening question regarding safety. Choice D is inappropriate as it uses a shaming tactic, which is not constructive and may create a hostile work environment. It's important for healthcare professionals to approach sensitive topics like domestic violence with empathy and professionalism.
A 24-year-old female client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. What is the primary responsibility of the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary responsibility of the nurse is to take the vital signs before any surgery. This action helps assess the client's baseline condition and identify any abnormalities that need addressing before the procedure. Obtaining the permit (choice B) is typically handled by administrative staff, explaining the procedure (choice C) is usually done by the healthcare provider performing the surgery, and checking the lab work (choice D) is often part of the pre-operative assessment conducted by the healthcare provider. Therefore, in this context, these actions are not the primary responsibility of the nurse.
After the client discusses her relationship with her father, the nurse says, "Tell me whether I am understanding your relationship with your father. You feel dominated and controlled by him?"? This is an example of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Seeking consensual validation is the correct answer. Consensual validation is a technique used to check one's understanding of what the client has said. It involves confirming with the client whether the nurse's interpretation aligns with the client's feelings or thoughts. This process helps build rapport, trust, and a shared understanding between the nurse and the client. Verbalizing the implied (choice A) refers to expressing the underlying or implicit meaning of a client's statement. Encouraging evaluation (choice C) involves prompting the client to assess or judge a situation. Suggesting collaboration (choice D) entails proposing working together with the client on a shared goal, which is not the primary focus in the scenario provided.
A client asks the nurse if all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always requires cross-matching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Packed red blood cells contain antigens and antibodies that must be matched between the donor and recipient to prevent transfusion reactions. Platelets, plasma, and granulocytes do not contain red blood cells, so they do not require cross-matching. Platelets are matched based on ABO compatibility, while plasma and granulocytes are not routinely cross-matched as they lack red cell antigens.
A 6-month-old client is admitted with possible intussusception. Which question during the nursing history is least helpful in obtaining information regarding this diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The least helpful question in obtaining information regarding intussusception is "Describe his usual diet."? This question is least relevant to the specific symptoms and presentation of intussusception. Choices A, B, and D are more directly related to symptoms commonly associated with intussusception and can provide important diagnostic clues. Asking about pain, vomit appearance, and changes in abdominal size can help in assessing the severity and progression of the condition, making them more crucial questions to ask in this scenario. Pain is a cardinal symptom of intussusception, changes in vomit appearance may indicate gastrointestinal issues, and alterations in abdominal size can signify the presence of a mass or obstruction, all of which are pertinent in diagnosing and managing intussusception.
To ensure safety while administering a nitroglycerine patch, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To protect herself, the nurse should wear gloves when applying a nitroglycerine patch or cream. Answer B is incorrect because shaving the area where the patch will be applied might abrade the skin, increasing the risk of irritation. Answer C is incorrect because washing with hot water can vasodilate the skin, potentially increasing the absorption of nitroglycerine. Nitroglycerine patches should be applied to areas above the waist, making answer D incorrect as applying it to the buttocks is not recommended.
Spirituality affects a client's life in all of the following areas except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Spirituality is a belief in or relationship with some higher power, creative force, divine being, or infinite source of energy. It can influence areas such as nutritional intake, the ability to handle stress, and sexual expression by providing comfort, guidance, and a sense of purpose. However, spirituality does not have any effect on genetic makeup, as genetics are determined by biological inheritance and not influenced by spiritual beliefs. Choices A, B, and C are directly influenced by an individual's spiritual beliefs and practices, impacting their overall well-being and behavior.
The nurse is caring for a client with cerebral palsy. The nurse should provide frequent rest periods because:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Frequent rest periods help to relax tense muscles and preserve energy in clients with cerebral palsy. This can lead to a decrease in grimacing and writhing movements, as relaxation and rest help to alleviate muscle tension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide inaccurate information. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes do not become more active with rest; stretch reflexes are not increased with rest in cerebral palsy patients, and fine motor movements are not necessarily improved solely by rest.
A client with glomerulonephritis is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which of the following snacks is suitable for the client with sodium restriction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is a fresh peach. It is the most suitable snack for a client with sodium restriction as it is naturally low in sodium. Peanut butter cookies (choice A), grilled cheese sandwich (choice B), and cottage cheese and fruit (choice C) contain higher amounts of sodium, making them unsuitable choices for someone on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits like peaches are excellent options for individuals on a low-sodium diet as they are not only low in sodium but also provide essential nutrients and hydration.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Multiple Drug Use. The nurse should plan care based on knowledge that
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client with Multiple Drug Use, it is important to understand that individuals may use more than one drug simultaneously or sequentially to enhance the effect of a particular drug or to relieve withdrawal symptoms. This practice is common among substance users. For example, heroin users may also consume alcohol, marijuana, or benzodiazepines. Combining drugs can have various effects, such as intensifying intoxication or alleviating withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to recognize that multiple drug use can complicate assessment and intervention due to the diverse effects of different substances on the client's health. Option A is incorrect as multiple drug use is indeed common, not uncommon. Option C is incorrect because combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects. Option D is incorrect because multiple drug use complicates assessment and intervention rather than making them easier, as the effects of different drugs on the client need to be carefully considered.
A client sitting alone and talking to voices is observed by a nurse. When asked, the client reports he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse's next action should be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client reports talking to voices, it can indicate the presence of hallucinations. Asking the client to describe what is happening is a crucial step as it helps the nurse understand the nature of the hallucinations and provides reassurance to the client. Touching the client without consent is inappropriate and can be distressing. Leaving the client alone may not address the underlying issue, and telling the client there are no voices denies their experience and can lead to mistrust.
The nurse wishes to decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings. To do this, the nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario provided, the nurse aims to reduce the client's use of denial and encourage the expression of feelings. Positive reinforcement for each expression of feelings is an effective approach to achieve this goal. By positively reinforcing the client's expression of feelings, the nurse encourages the desired behavior, making it more likely for the client to continue sharing their emotions. This approach creates a supportive and accepting environment for the client. In contrast, telling the client to stop using denial (Choice A) may create resistance and inhibit communication by putting pressure on the client. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) is less effective as it lacks the element of reinforcement that is essential for behavior modification. Challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) may lead to defensiveness and hinder the therapeutic relationship, making it a less favorable option.
When providing culturally competent care to a couple from the Philippines living in the United States who are expecting their first child, what should the nurse do first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When providing culturally competent care, the nurse's initial step is to reflect on and understand their own cultural beliefs and biases. By doing so, the nurse can approach the care of the couple from the Philippines with sensitivity and respect. This self-awareness helps the nurse recognize potential differences in beliefs and values, fostering effective communication and care. Option B is incorrect because it does not address the nurse's need for self-reflection. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on the clients adapting to the new country's practices rather than the nurse understanding the clients' existing beliefs. Option D is incorrect as it pertains to family dynamics and gender roles rather than the nurse's self-awareness.
A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
After a client undergoes a left lower lobe lung resection for lung cancer, which post-operative measure would typically be included in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a lung resection, such as the removal of the left lower lobe for lung cancer, closed chest drainage is a common post-operative measure to help drain any excess air or fluid from the chest cavity. A tracheostomy is not typically needed for this procedure, so choice B is incorrect. Similarly, a mediastinal tube is not routinely inserted following a left lower lobe lung resection, making choice C incorrect. Percussion vibration and drainage are not indicated for this type of surgery, so choice D is also incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is closed chest drainage.
What are appropriate nursing strategies to assist a client in maintaining a sense of self?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maintaining a sense of self is crucial for clients in healthcare settings. Treating the client with dignity is a fundamental nursing principle that helps preserve the client's self-worth and identity. Addressing the client by their first name when interacting with them is a way to show respect, but it alone may not significantly contribute to maintaining their sense of self. Explaining procedures to the client, regardless of their attentiveness, is essential for informed consent and autonomy, empowering them in their care. Encouraging the use of personal items can foster a sense of identity as these items often hold personal significance and emotional value for the client, thus supporting their sense of self; therefore, discouraging their use would be counterproductive in maintaining a client's sense of self.
Which intervention should the nurse take first to assist a woman who states that she feels incompetent as the mother of a teenage daughter?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority intervention for a mother who feels incompetent in parenting a teenage daughter is to assist her in identifying the factors contributing to her feelings of inadequacy and help her develop better coping and mothering skills. This approach focuses on addressing the mother's emotional needs and empowering her to improve her situation. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the daughter's discipline, which may not be the root cause of the mother's feelings. Option B is irrelevant as it focuses on improving her husband, not her parenting skills. Option D is incorrect as it shifts the focus solely to the daughter's behavior, neglecting the mother's emotional needs and self-improvement.
How should Lasix be administered to prevent hypotension?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lasix should be administered over 1-2 minutes at approximately 1mL per minute to prevent hypotension. This slow administration helps to reduce the risk of adverse effects such as sudden drops in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because Lasix does not need to be hung IV piggyback, choice C is incorrect as Lasix administration does not require it to be mixed with normal saline only, and choice D is incorrect as Lasix does not have to be specifically administered through a venous access device (VAD) to prevent hypotension.
A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.
Narrow therapeutic index medications:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug, indicating the safety margin. Narrow therapeutic index medications have a small difference between minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood, making them high-risk drugs that require close monitoring to avoid toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because pharmacokinetics refer to drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination, not the therapeutic index. Choice B is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs necessitate monitoring due to their narrow margin of safety. Choice D is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs do not necessarily have limited potency but are characterized by a small window between efficacy and toxicity.
To decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings, what should the nurse do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate approach to decrease a client's use of denial and promote the expression of feelings is to positively reinforce each expression of feelings. This method helps the client feel supported and validated, encouraging them to continue expressing their emotions openly. Positively reinforcing the expression of feelings can help reduce the need for denial as the client learns that their emotions are acknowledged and accepted. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A of telling the client to stop using denial is too directive and may be ineffective. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) lacks positive reinforcement, and challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) can create a confrontational environment that hinders therapeutic progress.
Social support systems include all of the following except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management. Social support systems involve external sources of support from others or the community. Call-in help lines, emotional assistance provided by others, and community support groups all represent social support systems where individuals can seek help and assistance from outside sources. On the other hand, the use of coping skills and verbalization for anger management refers to individual strategies rather than external social support.
James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'displacement.' Displacement is a defense mechanism where emotions or impulses are transferred from their original source to a substitute target. In this scenario, James is displacing his anger from his teacher onto the dog. Choice A, 'denial,' involves refusing to acknowledge an unpleasant reality. Choice B, 'suppression,' is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts out of awareness. Choice D, 'fantasy,' refers to imagining scenarios that fulfill one's desires but are not based in reality.
In the United States, several definitions of death are currently being used. The definition that uses apnea testing and pupillary responses to light is termed:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'whole brain death.' Most protocols for determining whole brain death require two separate clinical examinations, including the induction of painful stimuli, pupillary responses to light, oculovestibular testing, and apnea testing. This comprehensive approach ensures that all functions of the brain, including the brainstem, are evaluated to confirm the absence of brain function. Choices B and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the specific tests required for determining whole brain death. Choice C, 'circulatory death,' does not involve the evaluation of brain function and is not a current definition of death in the United States.
A client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia has been released from an acute care setting. The client had a prolonged recovery from relapse. One of the parents says to the discharge nurse, 'I do not understand what is going on. The hospital said she was better, but all she does is sit around all day and smoke. We cannot get her to go to the vocational training you arranged.' The nurse recognizes that more teaching is needed about
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse conducting discharge teaching must emphasize the extended recovery process and the potential side effects of medications used to prevent relapse in individuals with schizophrenia. In this scenario, it is crucial for the parents to understand that the client's behavior may be influenced by the medication's sedative qualities and the time required for full recovery. While support groups can assist caregivers in coping with their emotions and providing better care, the priority here is educating on the recovery process and medication effects. Motivational techniques are beneficial but may not be the immediate focus in this situation.
The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
Mrs. Owens is the 81-year-old mother of Jonathan, who is 54 years old. Jonathan has had schizophrenia since he was 16 years old. Which of Mrs. Owens's concerns is likely to predominate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most prominent concern for Mrs. Owens is likely what will happen to her son, Jonathan, after she passes away. While retirement fund sustainability is important, it is not likely to be her primary concern. Funeral arrangements, although significant, are secondary to the welfare of her son with schizophrenia. The question of how to communicate with Jonathan's physician is less likely to be a predominant concern since Mrs. Owens has likely already addressed this issue over the 38 years of managing her son's care.
James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Displacement is the transference of emotions, such as anger, to a substitute target that may be less threatening. In this scenario, James redirects his anger from the teacher to the dog. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Suppression is consciously putting aside unwanted thoughts or feelings. Fantasy involves imagining unrealistic scenarios. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is displacement as James displaces his anger towards the dog.
A successful resolution of the nursing diagnosis Negative Self-Concept (related to unrealistic self-expectations) is when the client can:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'report a positive self-concept.' The problem statement is Negative Self-Concept, so the goal is for the client to achieve a positive self-concept. This involves helping the client recognize their worth and strengths. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the resolution of Negative Self-Concept. Identifying negative thoughts (B) is a step towards improvement but does not represent a successful resolution. Recognizing positive thoughts (C) is positive but not the primary goal in addressing Negative Self-Concept. 'Give one positive cue with each negative cue' (D) is not as comprehensive as achieving an overall positive self-concept.
The nurse is assessing an elder whom the nurse suspects is being physically abused. The most important question for the nurse to ask is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important question for the nurse to ask when suspecting elder abuse is 'Who provides your physical care?' This question is crucial as the primary caregiver, who is often the abuser in cases of elder abuse, lives with the client. Research has shown that spouses and adult children are the most common abusers. By inquiring about the provider of physical care, the nurse can assess the potential abuser's proximity to the elder. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent to identifying the primary caregiver, who is more likely to be the abuser.
A client can receive the mumps, measles, rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold. A simple cold without fever does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine due to the live rubella component, which may lead to birth defects or disease. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine according to the American Academy of Pediatrics.
After experiencing a traumatic event like losing a child due to poisoning, a client tells the nurse, 'I don"t want to make any new friends right now.' This is an example of which of the following indicators of stress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: sociocultural indicator. In this situation, the client's reluctance to make new friends after experiencing a traumatic event like losing a child due to poisoning reflects a change in their social behavior, which is influenced by sociocultural factors. This response indicates how stress can impact a person's relationships and social interactions. Choice A, emotional indicator, is incorrect because the client's statement is more related to social interactions than emotional expression. Choice B, spiritual indicator, is incorrect as the given scenario does not directly involve spiritual beliefs or practices. Choice D, intellectual indicator, is also incorrect as the client's statement does not reflect cognitive or intellectual changes but rather social aspects affected by the stressful event.
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