Nursing Elites

1. During which stage of meiosis II are sister chromatids separated, resulting in four genetically unique daughter cells?

• A. Prophase I
• B. Prophase II
• C. Anaphase I
• D. Anaphase II

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: - Prophase I occurs in meiosis I, not meiosis II. During Prophase I, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material in a process called crossing over. - Prophase II is the stage where the nuclear envelope breaks down, and spindle fibers start to reappear, preparing the cell for division. Sister chromatids are still attached during Prophase II. - Anaphase I is the stage in meiosis I where homologous chromosomes are separated and pulled to opposite poles of the cell. - Anaphase II is the stage in meiosis II where sister chromatids are separated and pulled to opposite poles of the cell, resulting in four genetically unique daughter cells. This is the stage where the final separation of genetic material occurs, leading to the formation of haploid daughter cells.

2. Which of the following phases of the cell cycle is characterized by the replication of DNA?

• A. Interphase
• B. Mitosis
• C. Meiosis
• D. Cytokinesis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Interphase is the phase of the cell cycle where the cell spends the majority of its time and is characterized by three subphases: G1 (Gap 1), S (Synthesis), and G2 (Gap 2). During the S phase of interphase, DNA replication occurs, leading to the duplication of the genetic material in the cell. This ensures that each daughter cell produced during cell division receives a complete set of genetic information. Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle where the replicated DNA is divided equally between two daughter cells, while meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that occurs in sexually reproducing organisms to produce gametes. Cytokinesis is the final stage of the cell cycle where the cytoplasm divides, resulting in two separate daughter cells.

3. Which of the following statements is NOT true about performance appraisal?

• A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their
• B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report
• C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
• D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the correct answer because informing staff about specific impressions of their work can be subjective and may not always lead to improvement. Performance appraisal should be based on objective criteria and feedback. Verbal appraisals can lack documentation and clarity, making a written report a more reliable form of evaluation. Patients may provide valuable input on staff interactions, but they may not have the full context to assess job performance comprehensively. The outcome of performance appraisal should involve both the staff and the appraiser, as it is a collaborative process to identify strengths and areas for development.

4. What is the general formula for an alkyl halide?

• A. CnH2n
• B. CnH2n+2
• C. CnH2n-1X
• D. CnH2nO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The general formula for an alkyl halide is \(C_nH_{2n-1}X\), where X represents a halogen (e.g., F, Cl, Br, I).

5. The property of a substance that resists a change in its shape is called:

• A. Density
• B. Mass
• C. Inertia
• D. Elasticity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elasticity - This refers to a material's ability to resist deformation and return to its original shape after stress is applied. Density, mass, and inertia are related to the substance itself, while viscosity reflects resistance to flow, not shape change.

6. Electrons occupy specific energy levels around the nucleus with varying probabilities. The electron cloud model depicts electrons existing in distinct energy levels, not fixed orbits, with probabilities of finding them in specific regions.

• A. 2 protons and 6 neutrons
• B. 2 filled s orbitals and 6 filled p orbitals
• C. 2s orbitals with 2 and 6 electrons, respectively
• D. 4 filled electron shells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 2 filled s orbitals and 6 filled p orbitals. This notation indicates two electrons in the 2s orbital and six electrons in the 2p orbitals.

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