Free Nursing Leadership and Management practice for ATI Nursing Management 1 (ATI RN). Answer 44 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and pr
When someone is consistently late for work due to unreliable transportation, this is known as which type of barrier?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Attendance.' In this scenario, the nurse being late for work due to unreliable transportation is an example of an attendance barrier. This type of barrier refers to factors that affect an individual's ability to be present at work on time, such as transportation issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because voluntary barriers are ones that individuals choose to impose on themselves, motivation barriers relate to lacking the drive to perform a task, and involuntary barriers are obstacles beyond one's control.
What is the primary responsibility of a clinical nurse leader (CNL)?
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Explanation:
The main role of a clinical nurse leader (CNL) is to coordinate patient care. While CNLs may oversee aspects of nursing staff, the primary focus is on coordinating patient care to ensure effective treatment and outcomes. Developing nursing policies and implementing evidence-based practice are important aspects of nursing leadership but are not the main role of a CNL.
A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.
A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. Contact precautions are used when there is a risk of transmission of infections through direct or indirect contact. In this scenario, the client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, indicating a potential for infection transmission through contact. Droplet precautions (choice A) are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Protective environment (choice B) is used for immunocompromised clients. Airborne precautions (choice C) are used for infections transmitted through small droplets that remain in the air, like tuberculosis. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection.
Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse case manager?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'To coordinate long-term care services.' A nurse case manager's primary role is to coordinate and manage long-term care services for patients, ensuring continuity and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect because providing direct patient care is typically the responsibility of nurses, not nurse case managers. Choice B is incorrect as managing healthcare facilities is a role usually fulfilled by healthcare administrators. Choice C is incorrect as advocating for patient rights is important but not the primary role of a nurse case manager.
A unit director at a local hospital knows even leadership may face ethical dilemmas. Which of the following should the director take into consideration when dealing with an employee who is incompetent?
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Explanation:
Incompetence jeopardizes patient safety. Therefore, the formal process for handling these practices should be followed.
Which of the following statements is true regarding nursing ethics?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Nursing ethics focus on the duties and rules of behavior for professional nurses.' Nursing ethics primarily revolve around the principles and standards that guide the actions and decisions of nurses in their professional roles. Choice A is incorrect as nursing ethics are not limited to the organizational level but extend to individual conduct. Choice C is incorrect as while moral character is important, nursing ethics encompass more than just character traits. Choice D is incorrect as nursing ethics are centered on professional responsibilities rather than personal experiences and needs.
An RN is writing reminders for good documentation for the nurses on her staff. The purpose is to ensure nursing documentation is legally credible. Which of the following is a recommendation she should include in the reminders?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation that should be included in the reminders for ensuring legally credible nursing documentation is to 'Only use approved abbreviations.' Using shortcuts in documentation (Choice A) may lead to incomplete or vague information, compromising the credibility of documentation. Documentation should not be subjective (Choice C) but rather objective and based on factual information. While it is important to document after care is provided (Choice D), the immediate documentation following care provision is critical for accuracy and legal credibility.
A client experiences an air emboli, resulting in a stroke, during an IV start. This can be classified as which type of risk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'Diagnostic procedure.' When a client experiences an air emboli leading to a stroke during an IV start, it falls under the category of a diagnostic procedure risk. This incident occurred during a procedure intended for diagnosis or evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Patient dissatisfaction refers to a client's discontent with care, service, or outcomes; a medical-legal incident involves legal issues related to healthcare practices; and a medication error pertains to mistakes in medication administration.
How did the Social Security Act of 1935 impact public health nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Social Security Act of 1935 impacted public health nursing by containing provisions for care for disabled children. This helped in improving the health and well-being of this vulnerable population. The Act did not specifically address care for mentally disabled individuals, older adults, or opioid addicts. Therefore, the correct answer is disabled children.
A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L), indicating prediabetes, the initial approach is focused on lifestyle modifications to lower blood glucose levels. These changes may include dietary adjustments, increased physical activity, and weight management. Self-monitoring of blood glucose, insulin therapy, and oral hypoglycemic medications are not typically the first-line interventions for patients with prediabetes. Educating the patient about lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose is the most appropriate action at this stage.
The complexities of the current health care delivery systems require a variety of leadership styles. Which of the following leadership styles would be most effective in this environment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In complex health care environments, transformational leadership is the most effective style. This leadership approach focuses on inspiring and motivating staff towards a shared vision. Autocratic leadership (choice A) is too controlling and may not foster innovation and adaptability needed in complex systems. Laissez-faire leadership (choice B) lacks guidance and may lead to confusion in intricate healthcare settings. Transactional leadership (choice C) focuses on tasks and rewards, but may not be as effective in promoting innovation and change management required in complex health care delivery systems.
What is the main focus of a risk management program in healthcare?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The main focus of a risk management program in healthcare is to improve clinical outcomes. By identifying and mitigating risks, healthcare organizations aim to enhance patient safety, quality of care, and overall health outcomes. Option A is incorrect because reducing hospital readmissions is a specific goal within healthcare but not the primary focus of risk management. Option B is incorrect as managing financial resources, while important, is more aligned with financial management rather than risk management. Option C is incorrect as ensuring compliance with healthcare regulations is vital but falls under compliance management rather than the primary focus of risk management, which is to improve clinical outcomes.
During a home safety assessment, a nurse is evaluating a client who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which observation should the nurse identify as a proper safety protocol?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because having a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment ensures that the client can monitor the safety and functionality of the oxygen equipment regularly. This is crucial for maintaining a safe environment. Choice B is incorrect because storing an extra oxygen tank on its side under the bed can pose a safety hazard, as tanks should be stored upright. Choice C is a good safety practice, but it is not directly related to oxygen use. Choice D is incorrect because wool blankets are flammable and should not be used by clients receiving supplemental oxygen due to the increased risk of fire.
When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.
What is the main focus of the Six Sigma methodology in healthcare?
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Explanation:
The main focus of the Six Sigma methodology in healthcare is enhancing clinical decision making through data-driven approaches. By using statistical methods and quality improvement tools, Six Sigma aims to reduce errors, improve processes, and enhance overall decision-making in healthcare settings. While reducing healthcare costs and improving patient satisfaction are important goals, they are not the primary focus of Six Sigma in healthcare. Increasing healthcare access is also a valuable objective but not the main focus of the Six Sigma methodology.
An RN is working through an ethical dilemma involving a patient on his unit. He has just identified the decision makers involved. Which step best describes the current stage the RN is working through?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Planning. In the planning phase of addressing an ethical dilemma, the goals of treatment are established, decision makers are identified, and all available options are reviewed. The assessment phase involves collecting data and information, the diagnosis phase involves analyzing the information to identify the problem, and the implementation phase involves carrying out the chosen plan of action. Therefore, in this scenario, where decision makers are being identified, the RN is in the planning stage.
A nurse manager needs to resolve a conflict between the staff nurses and the physical therapy department. What type of power might the manager utilize? (EXCEPT)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse manager may utilize various types of power to resolve the conflict between the staff nurses and the physical therapy department. Referent power and connection power are based on respect/admiration and influential links, respectively. Information power is about access to valuable data. Reward power involves offering inducements for cooperation, while punishment power is about imposing penalties for non-compliance. Legitimate power, however, is derived from the manager's authority associated with their job and rank. Since the question asks for the type of power the manager might utilize 'EXCEPT,' legitimate power, being a key type of power often used in managerial roles, is the correct answer. It's important for the nurse manager to understand the dynamics of power and utilize the appropriate types to effectively address interdepartmental conflicts.
Organizations are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. This defines which of the following theories?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Chaos theory. Chaos theory is characterized by organizations that are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. Contingency theory (choice A) is based on the idea that there is no one best way to organize and manage a corporation. Closed system theory (choice B) refers to systems that are closed off from the outside environment and do not interact with it. Open system theory (choice C) views organizations as open systems that interact with their external environment.
The healthcare provider is developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure (CHF). Which components are essential to include? (Select all that apply.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure (CHF), it is essential to include patient outcomes. Patient outcomes help guide the care plan and ensure that interventions are effective. The expected length of stay is crucial to plan for resources but is not directly related to the critical pathway components. While the assigned healthcare team is important for care delivery, it is not a standard component of a critical pathway. Medical history is valuable for understanding the patient's background but is not a core component of a critical pathway.
Penalties should be __________ .
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Penalties for policy violations should be progressive. This means that the disciplinary actions should escalate based on the severity or frequency of the violation. For minor infractions, like smoking in an unauthorized area, a progressive approach may include oral warnings, written warnings, suspension, and termination if the behavior persists. In contrast, major violations, such as theft, may warrant immediate and severe consequences like suspension or termination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the concept of progressively escalating penalties based on the violation's severity or recurrence.
A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching they received about pain management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the client is demonstrating an understanding of the preoperative teaching by acknowledging the pain and relating it to the need to rest. Walking may exacerbate the pain, and the client's decision not to walk shows an awareness of their body's signals. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect a good understanding of pain management. Choice A suggests self-medicating without consulting healthcare providers, choice B focuses on distraction rather than addressing the pain, and choice C offers a coping mechanism but does not address the pain directly.
An RN is reviewing professional behavior expectations with a group of new nurses. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement to include in the teaching is that nurses may lose their licenses for unprofessional actions. This is an important reminder to new nurses about the serious consequences of unprofessional behavior in the healthcare field. Choice A is incorrect because discussing work on social media can breach patient confidentiality. Choice B is incorrect as speaking up in blogs and forums may not always align with professional conduct standards. Choice C is incorrect as behavior outside the practice setting, if unprofessional, can indeed impact a nurse's license.
What are the key elements essential to the implementation of case management? (Select all that apply.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Established critical pathways, collaborative practice teams, and quality management systems are indeed key elements essential to the implementation of case management. Collaborative practice teams allow for multidisciplinary collaboration, established critical pathways help guide patient care, and a quality management system ensures that care provided meets established standards. Choice A, collaborative practice teams, is correct as they are fundamental for effective case management, involving various professionals working together. Choice B, established critical pathways, is also correct as they provide a structured approach to managing patient care. Choice C, quality management system, is correct as it ensures that care is delivered at high standards and continuously monitored for improvement. Therefore, all these elements are crucial for successful case management implementation.
What is the main purpose of the NCLEX examination?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The main purpose of the NCLEX examination is to ensure the safety of the public by determining if candidates have the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective nursing care. Choice A is incorrect as the exam evaluates if individuals are ready to begin nursing practice, not just passed classes. Choice B is incorrect as the exam is not related to the affiliation of nursing schools with service agencies. Choice C is incorrect as the exam is not designed to help potential students choose the best nursing schools, but rather to assess individual readiness for nursing practice to protect public safety.
An unresponsive patient with type 2 diabetes is brought to the emergency department and diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). The nurse will anticipate the need to
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS), severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances are common. To address these issues, the priority intervention is to insert a large-bore IV catheter for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte replacement. Giving a bolus of 50% dextrose would worsen the hyperglycemia. Initiating oxygen via nasal cannula may be beneficial for respiratory support but is not the priority in this scenario. Administering glargine (Lantus) insulin is not the initial treatment for HHS as it does not address the underlying severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
What are the final stages of the conflict process?
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Explanation:
The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.
Constant reports of inadequate pain control in clients indicate which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Constant reports of inadequate pain control may suggest potential substance abuse by the healthcare provider, as they might be diverting narcotics for personal use instead of administering them to clients. The incorrect choices include: A) Improper administration of medications may cause inadequate pain control but does not necessarily involve substance abuse. C) Poorly written prescriptions could lead to medication errors but are less likely to be related to substance abuse. D) Inadequate scheduling by healthcare providers might affect pain management but does not directly suggest substance abuse.
Why is increasing the use of advanced practice nurses encouraged?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because the 2010 Institute of Medicine report recommended that nurses practice to the full extent of their education, which includes utilizing advanced practice nurses. This supports the efficient delivery of healthcare services by leveraging the expertise and skills of advanced practice nurses. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the role of advanced practice nurses rather than providing a reason for increasing their use. Choice C is unrelated to the encouragement of increasing the use of advanced practice nurses as it focuses on the terminal degree for nurse practitioners. Choice D is incorrect as advanced practice nurses do possess the skills necessary to diagnose and provide advanced care, so the statement that they lack diagnostic skills is inaccurate.
Behavioral leadership theory recognizes three styles of leadership. Which of the following best describes democratic leadership?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Democratic leadership involves the leader working collaboratively with the team to make plans and decisions. This style values input from team members, encourages participation in the decision-making process, and fosters a sense of ownership among the team. Choice A is incorrect because simply communicating meaning and purpose does not capture the essence of democratic leadership. Choice B is incorrect as giving orders and making decisions for the group is more characteristic of an autocratic leadership style. Choice C is incorrect as democratic leaders are actively involved in planning and decision-making processes, contrary to doing little of it.
Verbal interventions with an agitated patient may be calming. These interventions include:
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Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Remaining calm and keeping an arm's distance. Agitated individuals benefit from minimal verbal and physical stimulation. They respond to their environment based on how nurses interact with them. If an individual feels threatened or cornered, the response will generally be self-protective and reactive. Standing close to the patient (choice D) can be perceived as invasive and may escalate the situation. Holding and reassuring the patient (choice A) may not be effective if the patient perceives it as intrusive. Encouraging other staff to distract the patient (choice B) may introduce unnecessary stimulation. Therefore, the recommended approach is to remain calm and keep a safe distance to provide a non-threatening environment for the agitated patient.
What is the primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing is to advocate for patient rights. While ensuring patient safety and providing emotional support are important aspects of nursing care, the core focus of patient advocacy is to uphold and protect the rights of patients. Providing financial assistance is not typically a primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing.
Which of the following best describes the concept of cultural humility in nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cultural humility in nursing is about approaching patient care with an open mind, being willing to learn from patients, and adapting to their individual needs. Choice A is incorrect as cultural humility is not about a fixed set of competencies, but rather an ongoing process of self-reflection and learning. Choice B, recognizing and addressing power imbalances, is related to cultural competence but not the core concept of cultural humility. Choice C, adapting care to fit different cultural contexts, is more aligned with cultural competence rather than cultural humility.
Your values do not coincide with your colleagues. When you report for your shift on nights and staff are not responding to patient requests for pain medication, you, as the nurse responsible for collecting data about patient quality of care, should:
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Explanation:
As the nurse responsible for collecting data about patient quality of care, it is important to address the issue of staff not responding to patient requests for pain medication. Scheduling meetings to engage with staff to monitor pain management is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario. By enlisting support from staff, reviewing patient satisfaction data, and quality reports about pain management, you can effectively address the issue and improve patient care. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective as they do not involve actively engaging with staff, reviewing data, and working collaboratively to address the problem.
What are the advantages of using internal pools of nurses for staffing purposes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Familiarity with the hospital & Lower cost. Internal float pools of nurses offer advantages such as being familiar with the hospital environment and staff, which can enhance communication and collaboration. Additionally, utilizing internal nurses is more cost-effective compared to hiring agency nurses, contributing to financial savings for the healthcare facility. Choice B, Centralization, is not a direct advantage of using internal pools of nurses. Choice C, Staffing mix, is a broader concept that does not specifically address the advantages of internal nurse pools. Choice D, Staff satisfaction, is important but not directly related to the specific advantages of utilizing internal nurse pools for staffing purposes.
A group of physicians comes into conflict with the nursing staff of a unit over when AM vital signs are recorded. What type of technique might be used that respects the professionalism of both parties?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate technique to use is collaboration. Collaboration involves working together with mutual attention to the problem, utilizing the talents of all parties involved. This approach respects the professionalism of both physicians and nursing staff by valuing their input and expertise. Choice A, accommodating, involves giving in to the other party's concerns, which may not fully address the conflict. Choice C, avoiding, suggests ignoring or sidestepping the issue, which does not promote a resolution. Choice D, competing, involves pursuing one's own concerns at the expense of the other party's, leading to a win-lose situation, which is not conducive to resolving conflicts in a professional setting.
Politics is defined as the art of influencing the allocation of scarce resources. An example of a scarce resource allocated by the manager of a patient care unit is:
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Explanation:
In a healthcare setting, scarce resources can include money, time, personnel, and materials. Staffing decisions directly impact the allocation of personnel resources and can affect overtime costs, making it a critical resource managed by the unit manager. Patient supplies in the utility room and paper for the printer are important, but staffing decisions have a more direct impact on resource allocation within the unit. Raises for staff are typically granted by the institution and are not directly controlled by the unit manager.
A Staff Nurse submits a six-week notice of resignation. The Nurse Manager prepares a request to immediately post the position and begin interviews. This action is best described as which of the following?
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Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Proactive management. Proactive management involves taking steps to prevent issues from occurring rather than just reacting to them. In this scenario, the Nurse Manager is being proactive by preparing to fill the position before the Staff Nurse leaves, thereby preventing short staffing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Delegation refers to assigning tasks to others, not preparing to fill a vacant position. Calling it a time-waster is subjective and not reflective of the manager's proactive approach. Reactive management would involve waiting until the Nurse leaves and then trying to fill the position, causing short staffing.
A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance caring for their loved one with dementia and managing household responsibilities. This situation represents role conflict, where conflicting demands from different roles (caregiver and homemaker) create stress. Role ambiguity (choice A) refers to uncertainty about what is expected in a role, not conflicting demands. Role overload (choice B) occurs when there are too many responsibilities within a single role, not conflicting roles. The sick role (choice D) is a sociological concept related to the rights and responsibilities of individuals who are ill.
Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional instruction in administering insulin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
This statement indicates a need for additional instruction because while site rotation is essential, it's important to rotate sites within the same anatomical region (such as staying within the abdomen for several injections before moving to a different region). Rotating too frequently between different regions can cause inconsistent insulin absorption, which can affect blood sugar control.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When applying wrist restraints, it is crucial to secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails to ensure the client's safety and prevent injury. Padding the client's wrists (Choice A) is not a standard practice and may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints. Evaluating the client's circulation (Choice B) is important but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours to ensure prompt detection of any circulation issues. Removing the restraints every 4 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or agitation in the client.
Strategies to advance your career and opportunities available in your first job can coexist. Identify factors that will help you prioritize these opportunities to fulfill your goals. (Select all that apply.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Self-actualization involves assessing your values and lifestyle, which is crucial for prioritizing opportunities that align with your goals. This process helps you understand yourself better and make informed decisions to advance your career. Choice B is incorrect because focusing solely on salary may not necessarily lead to career growth and fulfillment. Choice C is about teamwork skills, which are important but not directly related to prioritizing career opportunities. Choice D is about seeking opinions from others, which may not always align with your personal goals and aspirations.
The unit manager of a 32-bed medical-surgical unit allows the staff nurses to do self-governance for scheduling, client care assignments, and committee work. The manager would be considered which type of leader?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Laissez-faire. In a laissez-faire leadership style, the manager exerts very little control and allows the staff to have a high degree of autonomy in decision-making and problem-solving. This type of leader provides guidance when needed but largely leaves the decision-making process to the staff. Autocratic leadership (choice A) is characterized by centralizing decision-making authority, democratic leadership (choice B) involves shared decision-making, and bureaucratic leadership (choice C) relies on adherence to rules and procedures.
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